Virtual ATI Next Gen PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Assessment for NUR 265 Level 3 Forms A, with Actual & Retake Real Questions and Verified Solutions — Pass on First Attempt

Virtual ATI Next Gen PN Comprehensive
Predictor Exit Assessment for NUR 265 Level
3 Forms A, with Actual & Retake Real
Questions and Verified Solutions — Pass on
First Attempt




Question 1 of 180
A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the vital signs of a 12-hour-old newborn.
Which of the following findings is the priority for the PN to report to the
healthcare provider?

1. Heart rate 170/min
2. Respiratory rate 55/min
3. Axillary temperature 36.3°C (97.3°F)
4. Grunting on expiration

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 4 – Grunting on expiration indicates respiratory distress
(possible retained fluid, pneumothorax, or infection).

• 1: HR 170/min is within normal newborn range (110–180).
• 2: RR 55/min is normal (30–60).
• 3: Temp 36.3°C (97.3°F) is slightly low but not priority over grunting.

Question 2 of 180
A PN is reinforcing teaching for a client with a new ileostomy. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?

1. “I will empty my pouch when it is one-third full.”
2. “I can take enteric-coated tablets as usual.”
3. “I will limit fluids to prevent diarrhea.”
4. “I should expect thick, formed stools.”

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – Emptying at one-third full prevents leakage and weight on
seal.

• 2 incorrect: Enteric-coated tablets may pass undissolved.
• 3 incorrect: Fluids needed to prevent dehydration.
• 4 incorrect: Ileostomy output is liquid to semi-formed.

,Question 3 of 180
A client with heart failure (HF) has a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor).
Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

1. “I will call my provider if my heart rate goes below 60.”
2. “I should avoid taking OTC cold medications without asking.”
3. “I will stop taking this medication if I feel tired.”
4. “I need to change positions slowly.”

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 3 – Abrupt beta-blocker withdrawal can worsen HF, cause
tachycardia, or hypertension.

• 1, 2, 4 are correct precautions.

Question 4 of 180
A PN is caring for a client receiving lithium (Eskalith). Which laboratory value
requires immediate reporting?

1. Serum lithium 1.8 mEq/L
2. Hemoglobin 14.5 g/dL
3. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
4. Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – Lithium level 1.8 mEq/L is above therapeutic (0.8–1.2) and
nearing toxicity (>1.5).

• 2, 3, 4 are normal.

Question 5 of 180
A PN is assisting with care for a client who has a chest tube to water seal. Which
finding should be reported immediately?

1. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
2. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
3. Fluctuation of fluid in the water seal chamber with respirations
4. Drainage of 50 mL in 6 hours

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – Continuous bubbling in water seal chamber indicates an air
leak; suction control chamber bubbling is expected.

• 2 intermittent bubbling is normal for pneumothorax drainage.
• 3 tidaling is normal.
• 4 drainage amount is within expected.

,Question 6 of 180
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage).
Which statement by the client requires further teaching?

1. “I should take this medication with meals.”
2. “I might lose some weight on this drug.”
3. “I will stop taking it if I have a CT scan with contrast.”
4. “I can drink alcohol moderately every day.”

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 4 – Alcohol increases risk of lactic acidosis with metformin;
daily moderate use is unsafe.

• 1, 2, 3 are correct (3 is correct – hold metformin before contrast to
prevent lactic acidosis).

Question 7 of 180
A PN is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with a new prescription for
furosemide (Lasix). Which food should the client be encouraged to consume?

1. Bananas
2. White bread
3. Applesauce
4. Canned soup

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – Furosemide causes hypokalemia; bananas are potassium-
rich.

• 2, 3, 4 are low in potassium.

Question 8 of 180
A PN is monitoring a client who received morphine sulfate 4 mg IV 30 minutes
ago. Which finding is the priority to report?

1. Respiratory rate 10/min
2. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg
3. Pain rating 4/10
4. Sedation score 2 (awake but drowsy)

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – RR 10/min indicates respiratory depression, the most
serious opioid adverse effect.

• 2 BP is acceptable, 3 pain not priority, 4 mild sedation expected.

Question 9 of 180
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has oxygen ordered

, at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The PN notes the client has increased confusion
and lethargy. Which action should the PN take first?

1. Increase oxygen to 4 L/min.
2. Check oxygen saturation.
3. Notify the healthcare provider.
4. Encourage deep breathing.

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 3 – Confusion in COPD on oxygen may indicate CO2 narcosis;
provider must be notified.

• 1 increasing O2 can worsen hypoventilation.
• 2 assess but action is to report.

Question 10 of 180
A PN is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which
laboratory value should the PN monitor most closely?

1. aPTT
2. INR
3. Platelet count
4. Hemoglobin

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 1 – aPTT monitors heparin therapy (therapeutic 1.5–2.5x
control).

• 2 INR monitors warfarin.
• 3 platelets for HIT but not most closely.
• 4 hemoglobin for bleeding but aPTT is direct monitoring




Question 11 of 180
A PN is caring for a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which finding should be
reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

1. Jaundice on the face only
2. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
3. Irregular breathing with pauses <10 seconds
4. Yellowing of the palms and soles

Verified Solution:
Correct answer: 4 – Jaundice extending to palms and soles indicates a total
bilirubin level often >15 mg/dL, risk for kernicterus.