NU 665C EXAM 2 (REGIS) NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM| NU665C PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH CARE
OF THE FAMILY II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRDAED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
1. A PMHNP is assessing a client who reports drinking alcohol
daily for the past 10 years. The client states, “I can drink a
whole bottle of vodka and still function.” Which criterion for
Alcohol Use Disorder does this statement best represent?
A) Craving or strong desire to use alcohol
B) Tolerance as defined by needing markedly increased
amounts to achieve desired effect
C) Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down
D) Important social or occupational activities given up
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR defines tolerance as either (1) a need
for markedly increased amounts of alcohol to achieve
intoxication or desired effect, or (2) a markedly diminished
effect with continued use of the same amount. The client’s
statement about drinking a whole bottle of vodka and still
1
,functioning indicates tolerance. Criteria A refers to cravings, C
refers to unsuccessful attempts to cut down, and D refers to role
disruption.
2. A client presents with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
including tremors, anxiety, tachycardia, and hypertension.
These symptoms began approximately 7 hours after the
client’s last drink. Which statement best describes the timeline
of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
A) Symptoms peak at 48-72 hours and always include
seizures
B) Tremors, anxiety, and autonomic symptoms begin 6-12
hours after last drink
C) Withdrawal symptoms resolve completely within 24 hours
D) Delirium tremens occurs within 6-12 hours of last drink
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal symptoms progress through a
predictable timeline. Mild withdrawal symptoms including
tremors, anxiety, tachycardia, and hypertension typically begin
6–12 hours after the last drink. Seizures may occur 12–48 hours
2
,after the last drink, and delirium tremens (DTs) occurs 48–72
hours after the last drink. Not all clients experience seizures or
DTs.
3. A client with severe alcohol use disorder is being treated
for acute withdrawal. Which medication is first-line for
preventing seizures and progression to delirium tremens?
A) Haloperidol
B) Carbamazepine
C) Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, diazepam)
D) Clonidine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam,
chlordiazepoxide) are the first-line treatment for acute alcohol
withdrawal. They are GABA agonists that prevent seizures,
reduce autonomic instability, and decrease the risk of
progressing to delirium tremens. While carbamazepine is
sometimes used as an adjunct, it is not first-line. Haloperidol may
be used for agitation but does not prevent seizures. Clonidine
may help with autonomic symptoms but does not prevent seizures.
3
, 4. A client is prescribed naltrexone for alcohol use disorder.
The nurse should educate the client about which potential
adverse effect that requires monitoring?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Severe sedation
D) Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naltrexone has a black box warning for
hepatotoxicity. Liver function tests should be monitored at
baseline and periodically during treatment. Naltrexone is
contraindicated in clients with acute hepatitis or liver failure. It
does not typically cause hypertensive crisis, severe sedation, or
respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a concern with
opioids, not naltrexone.
5. A client with alcohol use disorder asks about disulfiram.
Which statement accurately describes the mechanism of action
of disulfiram?
4
EXAM| NU665C PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH CARE
OF THE FAMILY II EXAM 2 REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRDAED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
1. A PMHNP is assessing a client who reports drinking alcohol
daily for the past 10 years. The client states, “I can drink a
whole bottle of vodka and still function.” Which criterion for
Alcohol Use Disorder does this statement best represent?
A) Craving or strong desire to use alcohol
B) Tolerance as defined by needing markedly increased
amounts to achieve desired effect
C) Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down
D) Important social or occupational activities given up
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR defines tolerance as either (1) a need
for markedly increased amounts of alcohol to achieve
intoxication or desired effect, or (2) a markedly diminished
effect with continued use of the same amount. The client’s
statement about drinking a whole bottle of vodka and still
1
,functioning indicates tolerance. Criteria A refers to cravings, C
refers to unsuccessful attempts to cut down, and D refers to role
disruption.
2. A client presents with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
including tremors, anxiety, tachycardia, and hypertension.
These symptoms began approximately 7 hours after the
client’s last drink. Which statement best describes the timeline
of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
A) Symptoms peak at 48-72 hours and always include
seizures
B) Tremors, anxiety, and autonomic symptoms begin 6-12
hours after last drink
C) Withdrawal symptoms resolve completely within 24 hours
D) Delirium tremens occurs within 6-12 hours of last drink
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal symptoms progress through a
predictable timeline. Mild withdrawal symptoms including
tremors, anxiety, tachycardia, and hypertension typically begin
6–12 hours after the last drink. Seizures may occur 12–48 hours
2
,after the last drink, and delirium tremens (DTs) occurs 48–72
hours after the last drink. Not all clients experience seizures or
DTs.
3. A client with severe alcohol use disorder is being treated
for acute withdrawal. Which medication is first-line for
preventing seizures and progression to delirium tremens?
A) Haloperidol
B) Carbamazepine
C) Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, diazepam)
D) Clonidine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam,
chlordiazepoxide) are the first-line treatment for acute alcohol
withdrawal. They are GABA agonists that prevent seizures,
reduce autonomic instability, and decrease the risk of
progressing to delirium tremens. While carbamazepine is
sometimes used as an adjunct, it is not first-line. Haloperidol may
be used for agitation but does not prevent seizures. Clonidine
may help with autonomic symptoms but does not prevent seizures.
3
, 4. A client is prescribed naltrexone for alcohol use disorder.
The nurse should educate the client about which potential
adverse effect that requires monitoring?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Severe sedation
D) Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naltrexone has a black box warning for
hepatotoxicity. Liver function tests should be monitored at
baseline and periodically during treatment. Naltrexone is
contraindicated in clients with acute hepatitis or liver failure. It
does not typically cause hypertensive crisis, severe sedation, or
respiratory depression. Respiratory depression is a concern with
opioids, not naltrexone.
5. A client with alcohol use disorder asks about disulfiram.
Which statement accurately describes the mechanism of action
of disulfiram?
4
