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NR 603 Week 2 Quiz Full Questions, Answers 2026 Update | Graded A+

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Question 1: During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of the following physical exam findings would most likely indicate normal uterine involution and absence of infection? • A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion • B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open • C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge • D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the pubic symphysis Correct Answer: D Question 2: During a patient interview, the provider asks, “How have you been coping emotionally since the event?” The patient responds, “It’s been really tough emotionally. I’ve been feeling very sad and overwhelmed, and sometimes it’s hard to get through the day.” Which of the following is the most appropriate next response by the provider? • A. That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days have been like? • B. It’s probably just temporary sadness. You’ll be fine with rest. • C. Let’s move on to your medical history now. • D. You should really try to be more positive. Things will get better soon. Correct Answer: A Question 3: A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but has normal strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management? • A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months • B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management• C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks • D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon within 1 week Correct Answer: C Question 4: A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI confirms an L4–L5 disc bulge with nerve root impingement, consistent with lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in this patient’s management? • A. Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention • B. Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve spontaneously • C. Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest • D. Initiate physical therapy and reassess in 4–6 weeks Correct Answer: D

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NR 603 Week 2 Quiz Full Questions,
Answers 2026 Update | Graded A+
Question 1: During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of
the following physical exam findings would
most likely indicate normal uterine involution and absence of infection?
• A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion
• B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open
• C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge
• D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the pubic symphysis
✅ Correct Answer: D

Question 2: During a patient interview, the provider asks, “How have you been coping
emotionally since the event?” The patient
responds, “It’s been really tough emotionally. I’ve been feeling very sad and
overwhelmed, and sometimes it’s hard to get through
the day.” Which of the following is the most appropriate next response by the provider?
• A. That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days have
been like?
• B. It’s probably just temporary sadness. You’ll be fine with rest.
• C. Let’s move on to your medical history now.
• D. You should really try to be more positive. Things will get better soon.
✅ Correct Answer: A

Question 3: A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower
extremity but has normal strength, coordination,
reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in
management?
• A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months
• B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management

, • C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks
• D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon within 1 week
✅ Correct Answer: C

Question 4: A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI
confirms an L4–L5 disc bulge with nerve root
impingement, consistent with lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate next step in this patient’s
management?
• A. Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention
• B. Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve
spontaneously
• C. Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest
• D. Initiate physical therapy and reassess in 4–6 weeks
✅ Correct Answer: D

Question 5: Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the
physical assessment following a spontaneous
abortion?
• A. To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules
• B. To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss
• C. To evaluate risk for future spontaneous abortion
• D. To assess for milk production and hyperprolactinemia that can delay
emotional recovery
✅ Correct Answer: D

Question 6: A patient reports new-onset confusion and difficulty recalling recent events
along with a worsening headache. Which of
the following best explains why these symptoms require immediate evaluation?
• A. They may indicate intracranial pathology or evolving neurological dysfunction
• B. They are likely related to dehydration and should improve with fluids
• C. These symptoms are expected after bereavement and should be monitored over

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