CRISC: CERTIFIED IN RISK AND INFORMATION SYSTEMS CONTROL | COMPLETE
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS
GUARANTEE)
Q1. Which of the following BEST describes an inherent risk?
• a) Risks that can be eliminated through controls
• b) Risks that are specific to an individual process
• c) Risks that exist within the nature of an activity or process
• d) Risks that can be transferred to a third party
ANSWER : c) Inherent risks exist within the nature of an activity or process,
regardless of any controls in place. They cannot be eliminated but can be
mitigated.
Q2. What is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a risk assessment?
• a) To identify potential vulnerabilities in the IT infrastructure
• b) To assess the financial impact of a risk event
• c) To prioritize risks based on their likelihood and impact
• d) To establish a risk mitigation plan
ANSWER : c) Risk assessment prioritizes risks based on likelihood and impact
to focus resources effectively.
Q3. Which of the following is an example of preventive control?
• a) Intrusion detection system
• b) Incident response plan
, • c) Business continuity plan
• d) Security awareness training
ANSWER : a) An intrusion detection system is a preventive control that
detects and prevents unauthorized access.
Q4. During a risk assessment, who should primarily be responsible for
identifying risks?
• a) Internal auditors
• b) IT management
• c) Risk owners
• d) External consultants
ANSWER : c) Risk owners are primarily responsible for identifying risks within
their areas of responsibility.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a component of the risk scenario?
• a) Assets
• b) Threats
• c) Vulnerabilities
• d) Risk appetite
ANSWER : d) Risk appetite is not a component of a risk scenario; scenarios
consist of assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts.
Q6. What is the FIRST step in the risk identification process?
• a) Identify assets
• b) Identify threats
• c) Identify vulnerabilities
• d) Identify controls
,ANSWER : a) Asset identification is the foundational step in risk identification.
Q7. Which technique involves generating a comprehensive list of project risks
using a facilitator?
• a) Delphi technique
• b) Expert judgment
• c) Brainstorming
• d) Checklist analysis
ANSWER : c) Brainstorming uses a facilitator to generate comprehensive risk
lists through group collaboration.
Q8. What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? (Choose three)
• a) Determination of cause and effect
• b) Determination of the value of an asset
• c) Determination of the value of business process at risk
• d) Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
ANSWER : b, c, d) Risk scenarios require asset/business process valuation and
identification of threats/vulnerabilities.
Q9. Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?
• a) The financial incentive behind the risk
• b) The mechanics of how a risk works
• c) The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups
• d) The potential opportunity of the risk
ANSWER : c) Risk utility refers to the usefulness or value of risk to
stakeholders.
, Q10. Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
• a) Providing an early warning signal
• b) Providing a backward-looking view on risk events
• c) Enabling documentation and analysis of trends
• d) Providing an indication of risk appetite
ANSWER : a) Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) primarily serve as early warning signals
for emerging risks.
Q11. Which role carriers decide the Key Risk Indicators of the enterprise?
(Choose two)
• a) Senior management
• b) Business leaders
• c) Chief financial officer
• d) Human resources
ANSWER : a, b) Senior management and business leaders determine which
indicators become KRIs.
Q12. Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
• a) Risk indicator matrix
• b) Impact matrix
• c) Risk scenario matrix
• d) Probability matrix
ANSWER : a) Risk indicator matrices define thresholds for risk indicators.
Q13. What is the process for selecting and implementing measures to impact
risk called?
• a) Control
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2026/2027 (PASS
GUARANTEE)
Q1. Which of the following BEST describes an inherent risk?
• a) Risks that can be eliminated through controls
• b) Risks that are specific to an individual process
• c) Risks that exist within the nature of an activity or process
• d) Risks that can be transferred to a third party
ANSWER : c) Inherent risks exist within the nature of an activity or process,
regardless of any controls in place. They cannot be eliminated but can be
mitigated.
Q2. What is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a risk assessment?
• a) To identify potential vulnerabilities in the IT infrastructure
• b) To assess the financial impact of a risk event
• c) To prioritize risks based on their likelihood and impact
• d) To establish a risk mitigation plan
ANSWER : c) Risk assessment prioritizes risks based on likelihood and impact
to focus resources effectively.
Q3. Which of the following is an example of preventive control?
• a) Intrusion detection system
• b) Incident response plan
, • c) Business continuity plan
• d) Security awareness training
ANSWER : a) An intrusion detection system is a preventive control that
detects and prevents unauthorized access.
Q4. During a risk assessment, who should primarily be responsible for
identifying risks?
• a) Internal auditors
• b) IT management
• c) Risk owners
• d) External consultants
ANSWER : c) Risk owners are primarily responsible for identifying risks within
their areas of responsibility.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a component of the risk scenario?
• a) Assets
• b) Threats
• c) Vulnerabilities
• d) Risk appetite
ANSWER : d) Risk appetite is not a component of a risk scenario; scenarios
consist of assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts.
Q6. What is the FIRST step in the risk identification process?
• a) Identify assets
• b) Identify threats
• c) Identify vulnerabilities
• d) Identify controls
,ANSWER : a) Asset identification is the foundational step in risk identification.
Q7. Which technique involves generating a comprehensive list of project risks
using a facilitator?
• a) Delphi technique
• b) Expert judgment
• c) Brainstorming
• d) Checklist analysis
ANSWER : c) Brainstorming uses a facilitator to generate comprehensive risk
lists through group collaboration.
Q8. What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? (Choose three)
• a) Determination of cause and effect
• b) Determination of the value of an asset
• c) Determination of the value of business process at risk
• d) Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss
ANSWER : b, c, d) Risk scenarios require asset/business process valuation and
identification of threats/vulnerabilities.
Q9. Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?
• a) The financial incentive behind the risk
• b) The mechanics of how a risk works
• c) The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups
• d) The potential opportunity of the risk
ANSWER : c) Risk utility refers to the usefulness or value of risk to
stakeholders.
, Q10. Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?
• a) Providing an early warning signal
• b) Providing a backward-looking view on risk events
• c) Enabling documentation and analysis of trends
• d) Providing an indication of risk appetite
ANSWER : a) Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) primarily serve as early warning signals
for emerging risks.
Q11. Which role carriers decide the Key Risk Indicators of the enterprise?
(Choose two)
• a) Senior management
• b) Business leaders
• c) Chief financial officer
• d) Human resources
ANSWER : a, b) Senior management and business leaders determine which
indicators become KRIs.
Q12. Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?
• a) Risk indicator matrix
• b) Impact matrix
• c) Risk scenario matrix
• d) Probability matrix
ANSWER : a) Risk indicator matrices define thresholds for risk indicators.
Q13. What is the process for selecting and implementing measures to impact
risk called?
• a) Control
