Page 1 of 49
ADULT-GERONTOLOGY AND FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER (FNP) 2026 PRACTICE EXAM
COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS|GUARANTEED
PASS.
GERONTOLOGY
Prepare with confidence using this Adult-Gerontology and Family
Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Practice Exam, designed to assess
advanced clinical knowledge across lifespan primary care. It focuses
on cardiology, pulmonology, endocrinology, neurology,
musculoskeletal, dermatology, gastroenterology, nephrology,
infectious disease, mental health, women’s health, pediatrics,
geriatrics, and professional issues. Suitable for nurse practitioner
students preparing for AGNP and FNP certification and clinical
practice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Subsection 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–10)
1. A 65-year-old male with hypertension and type 2 diabetes
presents with a blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg on lisinopril
20 mg daily. According to the ACC/AHA guideline, what is the
target blood pressure for this patient?
, Page 2 of 49
A. <150/90 mmHg
B. <140/90 mmHg
C. <130/80 mmHg
D. <120/80 mmHg
Answer: C. <130/80 mmHg
Explanation: ACC/AHA recommends BP <130/80 for adults
with hypertension and diabetes or chronic kidney disease. This
patient’s BP is above goal; consider adding a second agent (e.g.,
amlodipine or chlorthalidone).
2. A 72-year-old female presents with progressive dyspnea
on exertion, orthopnea, and bilateral lower extremity edema.
An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%.
Which medication class has been shown to reduce mortality
in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol)
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Direct vasodilators (hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate)
Answer: B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate,
bisoprolol)
Explanation: Beta-blockers, along with ACEi/ARB/ARNI, MRAs,
and SGLT2 inhibitors, improve survival in HFrEF. Loop diuretics
are for symptom relief only.
3. A 55-year-old man with a 30-pack-year smoking history
reports intermittent substernal chest pressure when walking
briskly, relieved by rest. ECG shows no ST changes. What is
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the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise stress test (if patient can exercise and ECG
interpretable)
C. CT coronary angiography
D. Resting echocardiogram
Answer: B. Exercise stress test (if patient can exercise and
ECG interpretable)
Explanation: Stable angina symptoms warrant stress testing to
assess for inducible ischemia. Exercise ECG is first-line if the
patient is able to exercise and baseline ECG is normal.
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score
of 4. Which antithrombotic therapy is recommended?
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Aspirin + clopidogrel
C. Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
D. No anticoagulation
Answer: C. Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
Explanation: CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women
indicates anticoagulation for stroke prevention. DOACs
(apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran) are preferred
over warfarin unless contraindicated.
5. A 68-year-old with chronic heart failure develops
new-onset confusion, nausea, and serum sodium of 118
mEq/L. He is on lisinopril, furosemide, and carvedilol. Which
medication is most likely contributing?
, Page 4 of 49
A. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor can cause SIADH)
B. Furosemide (loop diuretic is less common cause)
C. Carvedilol
D. The combination of all three
Answer: A. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor can cause SIADH)
Explanation: ACE inhibitors (and thiazides) can cause SIADH,
leading to hyponatremia. Evaluate volume status, hold the
offending agent, and treat the hyponatremia cautiously.
6. A 62-year-old female presents with sudden onset of
tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 160/90 in the
right arm and 100/70 in the left arm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Acute aortic dissection
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pericarditis
Answer: B. Acute aortic dissection
Explanation: Tearing chest pain with pulse or BP
differential between arms is classic for aortic dissection.
Immediate CT angiography and surgical consultation.
7. A 70-year-old with atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. His INR
is 4.5 without bleeding. What is the appropriate
management?
A. Hold warfarin, give vitamin K 2.5 mg orally
B. Administer fresh frozen plasma
C. Increase warfarin dose
ADULT-GERONTOLOGY AND FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER (FNP) 2026 PRACTICE EXAM
COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS|GUARANTEED
PASS.
GERONTOLOGY
Prepare with confidence using this Adult-Gerontology and Family
Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Practice Exam, designed to assess
advanced clinical knowledge across lifespan primary care. It focuses
on cardiology, pulmonology, endocrinology, neurology,
musculoskeletal, dermatology, gastroenterology, nephrology,
infectious disease, mental health, women’s health, pediatrics,
geriatrics, and professional issues. Suitable for nurse practitioner
students preparing for AGNP and FNP certification and clinical
practice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Subsection 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–10)
1. A 65-year-old male with hypertension and type 2 diabetes
presents with a blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg on lisinopril
20 mg daily. According to the ACC/AHA guideline, what is the
target blood pressure for this patient?
, Page 2 of 49
A. <150/90 mmHg
B. <140/90 mmHg
C. <130/80 mmHg
D. <120/80 mmHg
Answer: C. <130/80 mmHg
Explanation: ACC/AHA recommends BP <130/80 for adults
with hypertension and diabetes or chronic kidney disease. This
patient’s BP is above goal; consider adding a second agent (e.g.,
amlodipine or chlorthalidone).
2. A 72-year-old female presents with progressive dyspnea
on exertion, orthopnea, and bilateral lower extremity edema.
An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%.
Which medication class has been shown to reduce mortality
in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol)
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Direct vasodilators (hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate)
Answer: B. Beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate,
bisoprolol)
Explanation: Beta-blockers, along with ACEi/ARB/ARNI, MRAs,
and SGLT2 inhibitors, improve survival in HFrEF. Loop diuretics
are for symptom relief only.
3. A 55-year-old man with a 30-pack-year smoking history
reports intermittent substernal chest pressure when walking
briskly, relieved by rest. ECG shows no ST changes. What is
, Page 3 of 49
the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise stress test (if patient can exercise and ECG
interpretable)
C. CT coronary angiography
D. Resting echocardiogram
Answer: B. Exercise stress test (if patient can exercise and
ECG interpretable)
Explanation: Stable angina symptoms warrant stress testing to
assess for inducible ischemia. Exercise ECG is first-line if the
patient is able to exercise and baseline ECG is normal.
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score
of 4. Which antithrombotic therapy is recommended?
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Aspirin + clopidogrel
C. Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
D. No anticoagulation
Answer: C. Oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC)
Explanation: CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women
indicates anticoagulation for stroke prevention. DOACs
(apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran) are preferred
over warfarin unless contraindicated.
5. A 68-year-old with chronic heart failure develops
new-onset confusion, nausea, and serum sodium of 118
mEq/L. He is on lisinopril, furosemide, and carvedilol. Which
medication is most likely contributing?
, Page 4 of 49
A. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor can cause SIADH)
B. Furosemide (loop diuretic is less common cause)
C. Carvedilol
D. The combination of all three
Answer: A. Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor can cause SIADH)
Explanation: ACE inhibitors (and thiazides) can cause SIADH,
leading to hyponatremia. Evaluate volume status, hold the
offending agent, and treat the hyponatremia cautiously.
6. A 62-year-old female presents with sudden onset of
tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 160/90 in the
right arm and 100/70 in the left arm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Acute aortic dissection
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pericarditis
Answer: B. Acute aortic dissection
Explanation: Tearing chest pain with pulse or BP
differential between arms is classic for aortic dissection.
Immediate CT angiography and surgical consultation.
7. A 70-year-old with atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. His INR
is 4.5 without bleeding. What is the appropriate
management?
A. Hold warfarin, give vitamin K 2.5 mg orally
B. Administer fresh frozen plasma
C. Increase warfarin dose
