NURS 5315 Exam 1 Patho Practice Test
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Correct - UTA.
A researcher is investigating a new drug for treating cancer. The drug is
shown to induce cell death through a process involving caspase activation,
DNA fragmentation, and the formation of apoptotic bodies, with little to no
inflammation. The drug is thought to effectively eliminate cancer cells
without damaging healthy tissue. What is the primary mechanism of cell
death induced by this novel therapeutic?
A. Necroptosis
B. hypoplasia
C. Apoptosis
D. Atrophy
Answer: C. Rationale: The question explicitly describes the hallmarks of
apoptosis: caspase activation, DNA fragmentation, formation of apoptotic
bodies, and the absence of inflammation. These all fit perfectly with the
definition of apoptosis provided.
A newborn infant is found to have multiple congenital anomalies, including
heart defects, hypotonia, and characteristic facial features. Karyotyping
reveals trisomy 21. What is the underlying genetic condition in this case?
A. Point mutation
B. Chromosomal translocation
C. Aneuploidy
D. Deletion
,Answer: C. Rationale: Aneuploidy refers to an abnormal number of
chromosomes in a cell. In this case, trisomy 21 indicates that there is an
extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the condition known as Down
syndrome. This condition is associated with a range of congenital
anomalies, including the heart defects, hypotonia, and characteristic facial
features described in the scenario. Therefore, aneuploidy accurately
describes the underlying genetic condition.
, A 3-year-old boy presents with developmental delays, including significant
speech and language impairments, and characteristic facial features (large
ears, long face). His family history is significant for intellectual disability in
his maternal uncle and grandfather. Genetic testing is ordered and he is
diagnosed with Fragile X Syndrome What is the mode of inheritance of this
condition?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C Rationale: Fragile X Syndrome is inherited through mutations
on the X chromosome, where a single copy of the mutated gene can cause
the disorder, particularly affecting males more severely due to their having
only one X chromosome.
A patient with a long-term, poorly managed diabetes presents with
peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism
contributing to neuronal damage?
A. Oxidative stress
B. Direct chemical injury from glucose
C. Reperfusion injury
D. Hypoxic-ischemic injury
Answer: A. Rationale: High blood glucose levels lead to increased
production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), causing oxidative stress. This
damages cellular components, including neurons, contributing to diabetic
neuropathy.
A 48-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for an annual checkup.
During the pelvic exam, a small, firm mass is palpated on her uterine wall.
The patient reports no significant symptoms, although she has experienced
irregular menstrual bleeding for the past six months. A transvaginal
ultrasound reveals a 2 cm hypoechoic lesion in the uterine myometrium. A
biopsy is performed, and the pathology report reveals disorganized cellular
cumulative | Questions and Answers with
rationale| 2025/2026 Latest Updates 100%
Correct - UTA.
A researcher is investigating a new drug for treating cancer. The drug is
shown to induce cell death through a process involving caspase activation,
DNA fragmentation, and the formation of apoptotic bodies, with little to no
inflammation. The drug is thought to effectively eliminate cancer cells
without damaging healthy tissue. What is the primary mechanism of cell
death induced by this novel therapeutic?
A. Necroptosis
B. hypoplasia
C. Apoptosis
D. Atrophy
Answer: C. Rationale: The question explicitly describes the hallmarks of
apoptosis: caspase activation, DNA fragmentation, formation of apoptotic
bodies, and the absence of inflammation. These all fit perfectly with the
definition of apoptosis provided.
A newborn infant is found to have multiple congenital anomalies, including
heart defects, hypotonia, and characteristic facial features. Karyotyping
reveals trisomy 21. What is the underlying genetic condition in this case?
A. Point mutation
B. Chromosomal translocation
C. Aneuploidy
D. Deletion
,Answer: C. Rationale: Aneuploidy refers to an abnormal number of
chromosomes in a cell. In this case, trisomy 21 indicates that there is an
extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the condition known as Down
syndrome. This condition is associated with a range of congenital
anomalies, including the heart defects, hypotonia, and characteristic facial
features described in the scenario. Therefore, aneuploidy accurately
describes the underlying genetic condition.
, A 3-year-old boy presents with developmental delays, including significant
speech and language impairments, and characteristic facial features (large
ears, long face). His family history is significant for intellectual disability in
his maternal uncle and grandfather. Genetic testing is ordered and he is
diagnosed with Fragile X Syndrome What is the mode of inheritance of this
condition?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C Rationale: Fragile X Syndrome is inherited through mutations
on the X chromosome, where a single copy of the mutated gene can cause
the disorder, particularly affecting males more severely due to their having
only one X chromosome.
A patient with a long-term, poorly managed diabetes presents with
peripheral neuropathy. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism
contributing to neuronal damage?
A. Oxidative stress
B. Direct chemical injury from glucose
C. Reperfusion injury
D. Hypoxic-ischemic injury
Answer: A. Rationale: High blood glucose levels lead to increased
production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), causing oxidative stress. This
damages cellular components, including neurons, contributing to diabetic
neuropathy.
A 48-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for an annual checkup.
During the pelvic exam, a small, firm mass is palpated on her uterine wall.
The patient reports no significant symptoms, although she has experienced
irregular menstrual bleeding for the past six months. A transvaginal
ultrasound reveals a 2 cm hypoechoic lesion in the uterine myometrium. A
biopsy is performed, and the pathology report reveals disorganized cellular
