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Chamberlain University | 100+ Questions
with Verified Answers & Rationales
Advanced Physical Assessment | Graded A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
The NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment final exam
focuses on advanced history-taking, physical examination
techniques, differential diagnosis, and clinical reasoning
across the lifespan. Key domains include: HEENT, cardiac,
respiratory, abdominal, neurological, musculoskeletal,
skin, and genitourinary assessments.
,SECTION 1: HEENT (Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose,
Throat)
Question 1
A 65-year-old patient reports gradual vision loss, difficulty
reading, and trouble driving at night. Fundoscopic exam
reveals a "copper wire" appearance of arteriovenous
nicking and flame-shaped hemorrhages. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• A) Diabetic retinopathy
• B) Hypertensive retinopathy
• C) Age-related macular degeneration
• D) Glaucoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertensive retinopathy findings include
arteriovenous nicking, copper/silver wiring, flame-shaped
hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and papilledema in
severe cases. Diabetic retinopathy has microaneurysms,
dot-blot hemorrhages, and neovascularization. Macular
degeneration affects the macula (drusen). Glaucoma
presents with optic disc cupping.
,Clinical Pearl: Keith-Wagener-Barker classification grades
hypertensive retinopathy from I (mild AV nicking) to IV
(papilledema).
Question 2
A 45-year-old patient reports episodic headaches with
unilateral, periorbital pain that is "sharp" and lasts 15–60
minutes. The eye is red and tearing, and the patient is
restless. This is most consistent with:
• A) Migraine
• B) Tension headache
• C) Cluster headache
• D) Temporal arteritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cluster headaches are unilateral, severe,
periorbital pain lasting 15–180 minutes, accompanied by
ipsilateral autonomic symptoms (red eye, tearing, nasal
congestion, ptosis, miosis). Patients are restless (not lying
still like migraine). Migraine is often throbbing, with
photophobia and nausea, lasting 4–72 hours.
, Treatment: Acute: high-flow oxygen (12–15 L/min) or
subcutaneous sumatriptan. Preventive: verapamil,
prednisone, lithium.
Question 3
A 70-year-old patient presents with acute-onset, painless
vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic exam shows a
pale optic disc with a "cherry-red spot" at the macula.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A) Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
• B) Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
• C) Optic neuritis
• D) Vitreous hemorrhage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CRAO presents with acute, painless, monocular
vision loss. Fundus shows cherry-red spot (macula) with
surrounding pale retina (ischemia), boxcarring
(segmentation) of retinal vessels, and optic disc pallor.
CRVO causes disc edema and diffuse retinal hemorrhages
("blood and thunder"). Optic neuritis is often painful with
vision loss (common in multiple sclerosis). Vitreous
hemorrhage is seen in diabetic retinopathy or trauma.