1|Page
WGU D120 OA EXAM | {LATEST 2026/ 2027
UPDATE} COMPLETE ACTUAL AND AUTHENTIC
EXAM | BRAND NEW!
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her vulva.
On exam, the vulva is edematous and excoriated. The FNP performs a
wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It reveals pseudohyphae
and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
......ANSWER......vulvovaginal candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium
hydroxide are diagnostic for candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal
area. This is the first time this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is
inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on the wet mount.
What is the most likely diagnosis? ......ANSWER......trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam.
She has never been sexually active. Her family history and past medical
history are negative for any gynecologic diseases. Her menses occur
every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which
tests? ......ANSWER......Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap smears is at
the age of 21, regardless of sexual activity history. STD screening is not
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,2|Page
necessary as the patient is not sexually active. Hemoccult and
mammogram are not recommended for this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and
heavy white discharge. The patient denies a history of sexual activity.
On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and white patches on
the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the
FNP suspect in the patient's history? ......ANSWER......recent antibiotic
use;
Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The
majority of women who develop this infection have recently taken
antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She
was last seen 2 weeks ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and
was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x 10days. She completed her
medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and thick
white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such intense
itching. She is in a mutually monogamous relationship. Her LMP was 2
weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy. Wet mount shows negative
whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive hyphae, positive
spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is leaving tomorrow for a
week long cruise. She is not taking any medications and has no known
drug allergies. The FNP should prescribe which of the following?
......ANSWER......fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of
uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis. It is the most convenient
pg. 2
,3|Page
treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be compliant with
vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal
discharge, which is white and watery. She douches with vinegar and
water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for contraception and has
been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms
for STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted
changes in her normal menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a
positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count, no lactobacilli, no
hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this
patient? ......ANSWER......bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel
1 applicator HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for bacterial
vaginosis in the non-pregnant female. The presence of clue cells, and
the associated malodorous discharge and absence of lactobacilli are
markers for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the
FNP. She is breastfeeding without difficulty and plans to continue for a
year. She wants to begin using contraception and plans no further
pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for this
patient? ......ANSWER......Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding mothers
because of the effect of estrogen on milk supply. Progestin only OCs,
IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable methods of contraception for
breastfeeding mothers.
pg. 3
, 4|Page
Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the
FNP? ......ANSWER......Based on USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests
should be performed on female patients aged 21 and older, regardless
of sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix?
......ANSWER......Small, yellow, raised round area on the cervix.;
A nabothian cyst is a small, white or yellow, raised round area on the
cervix and is considered to be a normal variant.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 28-year-old patient recently
seen for a pap smear. Classification is high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion, endocervical cells seen, and adequate smear. The
FNP phones the patient and tells her which of the following?
......ANSWER......Your pap smear shows abnormal tissue that needs to
be evaluated. Please schedule an appointment for a colposcopy.;
The pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer and precancerous
states. The diagnostic test needed to confirm the diagnosis of a high-
grade lesion is a colposcopy with guided biopsies.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 61-year-old patient recently
seen for a pap smear. Results are: atrophic changes, scent endocervical
cells, and adequate smear. She has been treated for breast cancer with
mastectomy and tamoxifen. She has never received hormone
replacement therapy. What is appropriate for the FNP to tell the
patient? ......ANSWER......Your pap smear is normal but shows some
mild thinning of the tissue. This is to be expected in someone who is
pg. 4
WGU D120 OA EXAM | {LATEST 2026/ 2027
UPDATE} COMPLETE ACTUAL AND AUTHENTIC
EXAM | BRAND NEW!
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her vulva.
On exam, the vulva is edematous and excoriated. The FNP performs a
wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It reveals pseudohyphae
and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient?
......ANSWER......vulvovaginal candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium
hydroxide are diagnostic for candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal
area. This is the first time this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is
inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on the wet mount.
What is the most likely diagnosis? ......ANSWER......trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam.
She has never been sexually active. Her family history and past medical
history are negative for any gynecologic diseases. Her menses occur
every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which
tests? ......ANSWER......Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap smears is at
the age of 21, regardless of sexual activity history. STD screening is not
pg. 1
,2|Page
necessary as the patient is not sexually active. Hemoccult and
mammogram are not recommended for this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and
heavy white discharge. The patient denies a history of sexual activity.
On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and white patches on
the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the
FNP suspect in the patient's history? ......ANSWER......recent antibiotic
use;
Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The
majority of women who develop this infection have recently taken
antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She
was last seen 2 weeks ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and
was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x 10days. She completed her
medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and thick
white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such intense
itching. She is in a mutually monogamous relationship. Her LMP was 2
weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy. Wet mount shows negative
whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive hyphae, positive
spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is leaving tomorrow for a
week long cruise. She is not taking any medications and has no known
drug allergies. The FNP should prescribe which of the following?
......ANSWER......fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of
uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis. It is the most convenient
pg. 2
,3|Page
treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be compliant with
vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal
discharge, which is white and watery. She douches with vinegar and
water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for contraception and has
been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms
for STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted
changes in her normal menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a
positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count, no lactobacilli, no
hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this
patient? ......ANSWER......bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel
1 applicator HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for bacterial
vaginosis in the non-pregnant female. The presence of clue cells, and
the associated malodorous discharge and absence of lactobacilli are
markers for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the
FNP. She is breastfeeding without difficulty and plans to continue for a
year. She wants to begin using contraception and plans no further
pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for this
patient? ......ANSWER......Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding mothers
because of the effect of estrogen on milk supply. Progestin only OCs,
IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable methods of contraception for
breastfeeding mothers.
pg. 3
, 4|Page
Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the
FNP? ......ANSWER......Based on USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests
should be performed on female patients aged 21 and older, regardless
of sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix?
......ANSWER......Small, yellow, raised round area on the cervix.;
A nabothian cyst is a small, white or yellow, raised round area on the
cervix and is considered to be a normal variant.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 28-year-old patient recently
seen for a pap smear. Classification is high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion, endocervical cells seen, and adequate smear. The
FNP phones the patient and tells her which of the following?
......ANSWER......Your pap smear shows abnormal tissue that needs to
be evaluated. Please schedule an appointment for a colposcopy.;
The pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer and precancerous
states. The diagnostic test needed to confirm the diagnosis of a high-
grade lesion is a colposcopy with guided biopsies.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 61-year-old patient recently
seen for a pap smear. Results are: atrophic changes, scent endocervical
cells, and adequate smear. She has been treated for breast cancer with
mastectomy and tamoxifen. She has never received hormone
replacement therapy. What is appropriate for the FNP to tell the
patient? ......ANSWER......Your pap smear is normal but shows some
mild thinning of the tissue. This is to be expected in someone who is
pg. 4
