NUR283 / NUR 283 Comprehensive 2 |
2rd June Galen 2026 Exam (NEW 2025/
2026 Update) Transition to Registered
Nursing| Questions & Answers| Grade A|
100% Correct (Verified Solutions)- Galen
Question 1
The nurse is reviewing a telemetry strip and notes a rhythm with no identifiable P
waves, an irregularly irregular ventricular rate of 140 bpm, and narrow QRS
complexes. The client is dizzy with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Which
action should the nurse take first?
• A. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
• B. Administer amiodarone IV push
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor
Correct Answer: A. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
Rationale: The description—no P waves with an irregularly irregular rhythm—
is Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) with Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR) .
Because the client is dizzy (symptomatic/unstable), immediate synchronized
cardioversion is required to restore perfusion. Amiodarone is for stable A-Fib.
While oxygen is important, it is not the priority before cardioversion in a
dysrhythmia this unstable .
,Question 2
A client's cardiac monitor shows Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach). The client is
alert, oriented, and has a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. Which action should
the nurse take?
• A. Defibrillate immediately
• B. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
• C. Administer amiodarone IV push
• D. Begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: C. Administer amiodarone IV push
Rationale: This scenario describes stable Ventricular Tachycardia (the client has a
pulse and is alert). The first-line treatment for stable VT is antidysrhythmic
medication such as amiodarone. Defibrillation and chest compressions are
for pulseless VT. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable VT where a
pulse is still present but the patient is symptomatic.
Question 3
The nurse has received the hand-off report. Which client should the nurse plan to
see FIRST?
• A. A toddler with bronchiolitis on room air and mild wheezing
• B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. A preschooler with otitis media awaiting discharge
• D. A school-age child with a simple fracture in a cast
Correct Answer: B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula
Rationale: According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) , the infant
on supplemental oxygen is the highest priority. Infants with pertussis are at high
,risk for apnea and severe respiratory compromise. Any child requiring oxygen is
inherently less stable than those breathing room air or those with non-respiratory
diagnoses.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client post-lumbar spinal surgery who reports a headache.
The nurse notes clear drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do
immediately?
• A. Lower the head of the bed (HOB)
• B. Empty the Hemovac drain
• C. Remove sequential compression devices
• D. Reposition the client using the log rolling method
Correct Answer: A. Lower the head of the bed (HOB)
Rationale: Headache combined with clear drainage post-spinal surgery suggests
a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Lowering the head of the bed reduces
intracranial pressure and helps confirm a CSF leak (drainage often increases when
laying flat). This is a surgical emergency; the provider must be notified
immediately.
Question 5
The nurse preceptor observes a newly hired nurse administering an influenza
vaccine using the Z-track method. What action should the preceptor take?
• A. Praise the nurse for using an appropriate technique
• B. Document the technique as correct for vaccines
• C. Immediately stop the nurse and correct the technique
• D. Report the nurse to the nurse manager for unsafe practice
, Correct Answer: C. Immediately stop the nurse and correct the technique
Rationale: The Z-track method is NOT used for vaccines . It is reserved for
irritating intramuscular medications (e.g., iron dextran, hydroxyzine) to prevent
leakage into subcutaneous tissue. Vaccines should be administered using the
standard IM technique. The preceptor must intervene immediately to ensure proper
technique and patient safety.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client who develops a new onset of late decelerations on
the fetal heart monitor after spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action is
the priority?
• A. Turn the client on her left side
• B. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP)
• C. Increase the IV fluids
• D. Administer oxygen via face mask
Correct Answer: B. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP)
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which is a
non-reassuring fetal heart pattern suggesting fetal hypoxia. While interventions
like left lateral positioning, fluids, and oxygen are appropriate, the priority action
after initiating those basic measures is to notify the provider immediately, as this
often necessitates immediate delivery.
Question 7
The nurse manager is providing education on client rights. Which statement by a
participant indicates correct understanding of the teaching?
2rd June Galen 2026 Exam (NEW 2025/
2026 Update) Transition to Registered
Nursing| Questions & Answers| Grade A|
100% Correct (Verified Solutions)- Galen
Question 1
The nurse is reviewing a telemetry strip and notes a rhythm with no identifiable P
waves, an irregularly irregular ventricular rate of 140 bpm, and narrow QRS
complexes. The client is dizzy with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Which
action should the nurse take first?
• A. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
• B. Administer amiodarone IV push
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
• D. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor
Correct Answer: A. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
Rationale: The description—no P waves with an irregularly irregular rhythm—
is Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) with Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR) .
Because the client is dizzy (symptomatic/unstable), immediate synchronized
cardioversion is required to restore perfusion. Amiodarone is for stable A-Fib.
While oxygen is important, it is not the priority before cardioversion in a
dysrhythmia this unstable .
,Question 2
A client's cardiac monitor shows Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach). The client is
alert, oriented, and has a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. Which action should
the nurse take?
• A. Defibrillate immediately
• B. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
• C. Administer amiodarone IV push
• D. Begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: C. Administer amiodarone IV push
Rationale: This scenario describes stable Ventricular Tachycardia (the client has a
pulse and is alert). The first-line treatment for stable VT is antidysrhythmic
medication such as amiodarone. Defibrillation and chest compressions are
for pulseless VT. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable VT where a
pulse is still present but the patient is symptomatic.
Question 3
The nurse has received the hand-off report. Which client should the nurse plan to
see FIRST?
• A. A toddler with bronchiolitis on room air and mild wheezing
• B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. A preschooler with otitis media awaiting discharge
• D. A school-age child with a simple fracture in a cast
Correct Answer: B. An infant with pertussis receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula
Rationale: According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) , the infant
on supplemental oxygen is the highest priority. Infants with pertussis are at high
,risk for apnea and severe respiratory compromise. Any child requiring oxygen is
inherently less stable than those breathing room air or those with non-respiratory
diagnoses.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client post-lumbar spinal surgery who reports a headache.
The nurse notes clear drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do
immediately?
• A. Lower the head of the bed (HOB)
• B. Empty the Hemovac drain
• C. Remove sequential compression devices
• D. Reposition the client using the log rolling method
Correct Answer: A. Lower the head of the bed (HOB)
Rationale: Headache combined with clear drainage post-spinal surgery suggests
a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. Lowering the head of the bed reduces
intracranial pressure and helps confirm a CSF leak (drainage often increases when
laying flat). This is a surgical emergency; the provider must be notified
immediately.
Question 5
The nurse preceptor observes a newly hired nurse administering an influenza
vaccine using the Z-track method. What action should the preceptor take?
• A. Praise the nurse for using an appropriate technique
• B. Document the technique as correct for vaccines
• C. Immediately stop the nurse and correct the technique
• D. Report the nurse to the nurse manager for unsafe practice
, Correct Answer: C. Immediately stop the nurse and correct the technique
Rationale: The Z-track method is NOT used for vaccines . It is reserved for
irritating intramuscular medications (e.g., iron dextran, hydroxyzine) to prevent
leakage into subcutaneous tissue. Vaccines should be administered using the
standard IM technique. The preceptor must intervene immediately to ensure proper
technique and patient safety.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client who develops a new onset of late decelerations on
the fetal heart monitor after spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action is
the priority?
• A. Turn the client on her left side
• B. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP)
• C. Increase the IV fluids
• D. Administer oxygen via face mask
Correct Answer: B. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP)
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which is a
non-reassuring fetal heart pattern suggesting fetal hypoxia. While interventions
like left lateral positioning, fluids, and oxygen are appropriate, the priority action
after initiating those basic measures is to notify the provider immediately, as this
often necessitates immediate delivery.
Question 7
The nurse manager is providing education on client rights. Which statement by a
participant indicates correct understanding of the teaching?
