OB/PEDS ATI FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| ATI OB/PEDS
FINAL EXAM PREP WITH COMPLETE 500
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has received
methylergonovine. Which of the following should the nurse identify and
document as an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Urinary retention
D) Hyporeflexia
Correct Answer: B) Hypertension
Rationale: Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid used to prevent or
treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing sustained uterine contractions.
Its mechanism of action involves vasoconstriction, which can lead to a
significant increase in blood pressure (hypertension) as an adverse
effect. The nurse should monitor blood pressure closely and report any
elevations to the provider.
Question 2: A nurse is collecting data from a newborn who is 8 hours
old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
,provider?
A) Vernix in the skin folds
B) Positive Moro reflex
C) Apneic episode of ten seconds
D) Apical heart rate of 90/min while crying
Correct Answer: D) Apical heart rate of 90/min while crying
Rationale: A normal newborn's resting heart rate is between 110-160
beats per minute. An apical heart rate of 90/min while crying is
significantly bradycardic. While crying, a newborn's heart rate typically
increases. This finding suggests potential cardiac or respiratory
compromise and requires immediate further assessment and provider
notification.
Question 3: A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food sources that are
high in folate with a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the
following foods should the nurse recommend to this group as the best
source of folate?
A) 1 cup dried prunes
B) 1/2 cup broiled potatoes
C) 1/2 cup dried peas
D) 1 cup grapes
Correct Answer: C) 1/2 cup dried peas
Rationale: Folate is critical during pregnancy to prevent neural tube
defects. Legumes, such as dried peas, beans, and lentils, are among the
best plant-based sources of dietary folate.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation and reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse
should suspect which of the following conditions?
A) Placenta previa
,B) Abruptio placentae
C) Preterm labor
D) Rupture of membranes
Correct Answer: A) Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is the
classic presentation of placenta previa (where the placenta implants over
the cervical os). In contrast, abruptio placentae typically presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid, tender abdomen.
Question 5: A nurse in an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent
who has an upper respiratory infection. Which of the following findings
should the nurse identify as an indication of an allergic response?
Answer not listed in excerpts. This question is intended to mimic exam
style and is from search results.
Question 6: What is the first stage of labor characterized by?
A) Delivery of the placenta
B) Cervical thinning and dilation until it reaches 10 cm
C) Expulsion of the fetus
D) Recovery and bonding
Correct Answer: B) Cervical thinning and dilation until it reaches 10
cm
Rationale: The first stage of labor begins with the onset of true labor
contractions and ends with full cervical dilation (10 cm) and 100%
effacement. This stage encompasses the latent, active, and transition
phases.
Question 7: What are the phases of the first stage of labor?
A) Early, middle, late
B) Latent, active, transition
, C) Onset, peak, decline
D) Dilation, expulsion, placental
Correct Answer: B) Latent, active, transition
Rationale: The three distinct phases of the first stage are the latent
phase (0-6 cm dilation, mild contractions), the active phase (6-8 cm
dilation, stronger contractions), and the transition phase (8-10 cm
dilation, very strong contractions).
Question 8: What is the frequency and duration of contractions during
active labor?
A) Every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds
B) Every 5-10 minutes, lasting 15-20 seconds
C) Every 3-5 minutes, lasting 30-45 seconds
D) Every 10-15 minutes, lasting 10-15 seconds
Correct Answer: C) Every 3-5 minutes, lasting 30-45 seconds
Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, the cervix
dilates from 6 to 8 cm. Contractions during this phase typically occur
every 3-5 minutes, last 30-45 seconds, and are moderate to strong in
intensity.
Question 9: A patient in labor has contractions every 2 minutes, lasting
90 seconds, and fetal heart rate of 180 bpm. What is the priority?
A) Continue monitoring
B) Prepare for immediate delivery
C) Administer tocolytics
D) Encourage ambulation
Correct Answer: B) Prepare for immediate delivery
Rationale: This scenario describes hyperstimulation or tachysystole
(contractions too frequent). A sustained fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
(tachycardia) is non-reassuring and indicates fetal distress. Combined
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| ATI OB/PEDS
FINAL EXAM PREP WITH COMPLETE 500
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who has received
methylergonovine. Which of the following should the nurse identify and
document as an adverse effect of this medication?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Urinary retention
D) Hyporeflexia
Correct Answer: B) Hypertension
Rationale: Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid used to prevent or
treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing sustained uterine contractions.
Its mechanism of action involves vasoconstriction, which can lead to a
significant increase in blood pressure (hypertension) as an adverse
effect. The nurse should monitor blood pressure closely and report any
elevations to the provider.
Question 2: A nurse is collecting data from a newborn who is 8 hours
old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
,provider?
A) Vernix in the skin folds
B) Positive Moro reflex
C) Apneic episode of ten seconds
D) Apical heart rate of 90/min while crying
Correct Answer: D) Apical heart rate of 90/min while crying
Rationale: A normal newborn's resting heart rate is between 110-160
beats per minute. An apical heart rate of 90/min while crying is
significantly bradycardic. While crying, a newborn's heart rate typically
increases. This finding suggests potential cardiac or respiratory
compromise and requires immediate further assessment and provider
notification.
Question 3: A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food sources that are
high in folate with a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the
following foods should the nurse recommend to this group as the best
source of folate?
A) 1 cup dried prunes
B) 1/2 cup broiled potatoes
C) 1/2 cup dried peas
D) 1 cup grapes
Correct Answer: C) 1/2 cup dried peas
Rationale: Folate is critical during pregnancy to prevent neural tube
defects. Legumes, such as dried peas, beans, and lentils, are among the
best plant-based sources of dietary folate.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation and reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse
should suspect which of the following conditions?
A) Placenta previa
,B) Abruptio placentae
C) Preterm labor
D) Rupture of membranes
Correct Answer: A) Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is the
classic presentation of placenta previa (where the placenta implants over
the cervical os). In contrast, abruptio placentae typically presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid, tender abdomen.
Question 5: A nurse in an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent
who has an upper respiratory infection. Which of the following findings
should the nurse identify as an indication of an allergic response?
Answer not listed in excerpts. This question is intended to mimic exam
style and is from search results.
Question 6: What is the first stage of labor characterized by?
A) Delivery of the placenta
B) Cervical thinning and dilation until it reaches 10 cm
C) Expulsion of the fetus
D) Recovery and bonding
Correct Answer: B) Cervical thinning and dilation until it reaches 10
cm
Rationale: The first stage of labor begins with the onset of true labor
contractions and ends with full cervical dilation (10 cm) and 100%
effacement. This stage encompasses the latent, active, and transition
phases.
Question 7: What are the phases of the first stage of labor?
A) Early, middle, late
B) Latent, active, transition
, C) Onset, peak, decline
D) Dilation, expulsion, placental
Correct Answer: B) Latent, active, transition
Rationale: The three distinct phases of the first stage are the latent
phase (0-6 cm dilation, mild contractions), the active phase (6-8 cm
dilation, stronger contractions), and the transition phase (8-10 cm
dilation, very strong contractions).
Question 8: What is the frequency and duration of contractions during
active labor?
A) Every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds
B) Every 5-10 minutes, lasting 15-20 seconds
C) Every 3-5 minutes, lasting 30-45 seconds
D) Every 10-15 minutes, lasting 10-15 seconds
Correct Answer: C) Every 3-5 minutes, lasting 30-45 seconds
Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, the cervix
dilates from 6 to 8 cm. Contractions during this phase typically occur
every 3-5 minutes, last 30-45 seconds, and are moderate to strong in
intensity.
Question 9: A patient in labor has contractions every 2 minutes, lasting
90 seconds, and fetal heart rate of 180 bpm. What is the priority?
A) Continue monitoring
B) Prepare for immediate delivery
C) Administer tocolytics
D) Encourage ambulation
Correct Answer: B) Prepare for immediate delivery
Rationale: This scenario describes hyperstimulation or tachysystole
(contractions too frequent). A sustained fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
(tachycardia) is non-reassuring and indicates fetal distress. Combined
