NUR 615 Pharmacology Module 1 Exam: Principles of Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics,
Autonomic Pharmacology, and Drug Development – 2026 Update with Rationales
Questions 1–150 (Second Set)
1. What is the definition of pharmacokinetics?
A) The study of drug effects on the body
B) The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
C) The study of drug receptors
D) The study of drug toxicity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug (ADME).
2. What does pharmacodynamics primarily focus on?
A) How the body eliminates drugs
B) How drugs exert their effects on the body
C) Drug absorption rates
D) Drug solubility
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body (receptor binding, effects).
3. A drug that is a full agonist has which property?
A) Binds to receptors but does not activate them
B) Produces maximal response when occupying all receptors
C) Produces a submaximal response
D) Has no intrinsic activity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Full agonists have high intrinsic activity and produce maximal effect.
4. An antagonist drug:
A) Activates receptors
B) Binds to receptors and blocks agonist effects
,C) Increases receptor sensitivity
D) Decreases drug metabolism
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Antagonists bind without activation, preventing agonist binding.
5. Which route of administration bypasses first-pass metabolism?
A) Oral
B) Sublingual
C) Rectal
D) Intravenous
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IV administration delivers drug directly into systemic circulation, bypassing the
liver.
6. Bioavailability is defined as:
A) The amount of drug bound to proteins
B) The fraction of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation
C) The rate of drug excretion
D) The volume of distribution
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bioavailability (F) is the fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic
circulation unchanged.
7. A drug with a half-life of 6 hours will be approximately 94% eliminated after:
A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 94% elimination occurs after 4 half-lives (24 hours).
8. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
,C) Lung
D) Intestine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The liver contains most drug-metabolizing enzymes (CYP450 system).
9. A patient with liver failure may have increased drug levels due to:
A) Increased protein binding
B) Decreased metabolism
C) Increased renal excretion
D) Decreased absorption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Liver failure reduces phase I and phase II metabolism, prolonging drug half-life.
10. Which factor increases the volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug?
A) High protein binding
B) High lipid solubility
C) Low tissue binding
D) Hydrophilicity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: High lipid solubility allows drug to cross membranes and distribute into tissues.
11. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A) Less frequent dosing
B) Therapeutic drug monitoring
C) Higher loading doses
D) Enteric coating
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Narrow TI drugs have small margin between efficacy and toxicity (e.g., warfarin,
digoxin).
12. Zero-order elimination kinetics means:
A) A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per hour
B) A constant amount of drug is eliminated per hour
, C) Elimination is dose-dependent
D) Half-life is constant
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zero-order kinetics (phenytoin, alcohol) eliminates constant amount per time.
13. First-order elimination kinetics is characterized by:
A) Constant half-life
B) Saturation of metabolic pathways
C) Non-linear elimination
D) Constant amount eliminated per hour
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First-order kinetics has constant half-life; a constant fraction is eliminated per time.
14. A patient with renal impairment may require dose adjustment for drugs that are:
A) Highly protein bound
B) Renally excreted
C) Hepatically metabolized
D) Lipophilic
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Drugs excreted unchanged by kidneys accumulate in renal failure.
15. Which statement about Phase III clinical trials is true?
A) Small number of healthy volunteers
B) Large-scale trials on thousands of patients
C) Post-marketing surveillance
D) No blinding
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Phase III trials establish efficacy and safety in large patient populations.
16. An IND (Investigational New Drug) application is submitted before which phase?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
Autonomic Pharmacology, and Drug Development – 2026 Update with Rationales
Questions 1–150 (Second Set)
1. What is the definition of pharmacokinetics?
A) The study of drug effects on the body
B) The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
C) The study of drug receptors
D) The study of drug toxicity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug (ADME).
2. What does pharmacodynamics primarily focus on?
A) How the body eliminates drugs
B) How drugs exert their effects on the body
C) Drug absorption rates
D) Drug solubility
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body (receptor binding, effects).
3. A drug that is a full agonist has which property?
A) Binds to receptors but does not activate them
B) Produces maximal response when occupying all receptors
C) Produces a submaximal response
D) Has no intrinsic activity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Full agonists have high intrinsic activity and produce maximal effect.
4. An antagonist drug:
A) Activates receptors
B) Binds to receptors and blocks agonist effects
,C) Increases receptor sensitivity
D) Decreases drug metabolism
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Antagonists bind without activation, preventing agonist binding.
5. Which route of administration bypasses first-pass metabolism?
A) Oral
B) Sublingual
C) Rectal
D) Intravenous
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IV administration delivers drug directly into systemic circulation, bypassing the
liver.
6. Bioavailability is defined as:
A) The amount of drug bound to proteins
B) The fraction of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation
C) The rate of drug excretion
D) The volume of distribution
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bioavailability (F) is the fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic
circulation unchanged.
7. A drug with a half-life of 6 hours will be approximately 94% eliminated after:
A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 94% elimination occurs after 4 half-lives (24 hours).
8. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
A) Kidney
B) Liver
,C) Lung
D) Intestine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The liver contains most drug-metabolizing enzymes (CYP450 system).
9. A patient with liver failure may have increased drug levels due to:
A) Increased protein binding
B) Decreased metabolism
C) Increased renal excretion
D) Decreased absorption
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Liver failure reduces phase I and phase II metabolism, prolonging drug half-life.
10. Which factor increases the volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug?
A) High protein binding
B) High lipid solubility
C) Low tissue binding
D) Hydrophilicity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: High lipid solubility allows drug to cross membranes and distribute into tissues.
11. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A) Less frequent dosing
B) Therapeutic drug monitoring
C) Higher loading doses
D) Enteric coating
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Narrow TI drugs have small margin between efficacy and toxicity (e.g., warfarin,
digoxin).
12. Zero-order elimination kinetics means:
A) A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per hour
B) A constant amount of drug is eliminated per hour
, C) Elimination is dose-dependent
D) Half-life is constant
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Zero-order kinetics (phenytoin, alcohol) eliminates constant amount per time.
13. First-order elimination kinetics is characterized by:
A) Constant half-life
B) Saturation of metabolic pathways
C) Non-linear elimination
D) Constant amount eliminated per hour
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First-order kinetics has constant half-life; a constant fraction is eliminated per time.
14. A patient with renal impairment may require dose adjustment for drugs that are:
A) Highly protein bound
B) Renally excreted
C) Hepatically metabolized
D) Lipophilic
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Drugs excreted unchanged by kidneys accumulate in renal failure.
15. Which statement about Phase III clinical trials is true?
A) Small number of healthy volunteers
B) Large-scale trials on thousands of patients
C) Post-marketing surveillance
D) No blinding
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Phase III trials establish efficacy and safety in large patient populations.
16. An IND (Investigational New Drug) application is submitted before which phase?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
