NREMT Practice Test Bank - Multiple
Choice with Verified Answers &
Questions
The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to:
• A:recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient
care.
• B:provide protocols to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not
followed.
• C:deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
• D:ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education
hours. - Answer--You selected C; This is correct!
Reason: Providing continuing education to all personnel, recognizing those who
consistently provide competent patient care, and holding all personnel accountable
for adhering to the EMS protocols are all components of any EMS quality
improvement program. The ultimate goal, however, is to provide, as a system, a
consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
A set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an
EMT's job is called:
• A:the Medical Practices Act.
• B:confidentiality.
• C:a duty to act.
• D:scope of practice. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:The set of legal regulations and ethical considerations that define the job of
the EMT is called the scope of practice. The scope of practice provides a clear
delineation of the EMT's roles and responsibilities. Duty to act is defined as a legal
obligation to respond to every call for help while on duty and in your jurisdiction,
whether you are paid for your services or not. Confidentiality entails not releasing
any patient information to those not directly involved in the care of the patient. The
Medical Practices Act describes the minimum qualifications of those who may
engage in emergency medical care and establishes a means of certification.
The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT:
• A:evaluating the mechanism of injury.
,• B:determining if the scene is safe.
• C:assessing the need for assistance.
• D:donning personal protective gea - Answer--You selected A; The correct answer is
D;
Reason: The components of the scene size-up include determining scene safety,
assessing the mechanism of injury (MOI) or nature of illness (NOI), determining the
number of patients, and requesting additional help if needed. Personal protective
equipment (PPE) should be donned prior to beginning the scene size-up.
You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a skilled nursing
facility to the emergency department for evaluation of possible pneumonia. As you
are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see that the patient has a valid "do not
attempt resuscitation" order. During transport, you should:
• A:monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing care.
• B:provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable.
• C:perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
• D:disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting. -
Answer--You selected B; This is correct!
Reason:A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal
authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR laws
inherent to the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted
out-of-hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be adhered to if
they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must clearly state the
patient's medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian, and be
signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders have an expiration
date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact medical control for
guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable. Even in the presence of a
valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide supportive measures, such as
oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does not mean do not treat.
Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident?
• A:The number of patients overwhelms your resources.
• B:More than three vehicles are involved in the incident.
• C:More than five patients are involved.
• D:At least half of the patients are critically injured. - Answer--You selected A; This is
correct!
Reason:A mass-casualty incident (MCI) occurs any time the number of injured
patients overwhelms your available resources. It is not necessarily defined by the
number of patients, but rather your ability to effectively manage them. For example, if
you and your partner arrive at a scene and find two critically injured patients, you
,have an MCI (albeit a small-scale MCI) because two EMTs and one ambulance can
only care for one critically ill or injured patient effectively.
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an
example of:
• A:infection.
• B:indirect contact.
• C:transmission.
• D:exposure.
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an
example of:
• A:infection.
• B:indirect contact.
• C:transmission.
• D:exposure. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason: Exposure occurs when an individual comes in direct contact with blood or
other bodily fluids. Examples of direct exposure include blood splashing into the eyes
or mouth and an accidental stick with a contaminated needle or other sharp object.
Exposure does not always result in disease transmission and subsequent infection;
that depends on whether the patient has an infectious disease. Routine use of
standard precautions will afford the EMT the best protection from exposure to an
infectious disease.
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or
her blood pressure may constitute:
• A:assault.
• B:negligence.
• C:abandonment.
• D:battery. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:Battery is defined as unlawfully touching another person without his or her
consent. Obtaining consent from every responsive patient prior to rendering care is
of paramount importance. Assault is defined as instilling fear into another person, but
does not involve actually touching him or her. Negligence occurs when the EMT fails
to act as another prudent EMT would have acted in the same or similar situation.
Abandonment occurs when the EMT terminates patient care without the patient's
consent or transfers care of a patient to a provider of lesser training.
The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient
during the triage process because:
• A:the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported.
• B:all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient.
• C:three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient.
, • D:other patients may die of problems that may have been corrected. - Answer--You
selected D; This is correct!
Reason: Triage is the process of rapidly assessing patients in order to determine
their treatment priority. Focusing your attention on one patient during the triage
process not only defeats the purpose of triage (to do the greatest good for the
greatest number of people), but it neglects other patients who may die from injuries
or conditions that may have been corrected if detected earlier.
You are cleaning the back of the ambulance after transporting a patient with major
trauma. Which of the following contaminated items should NOT be placed in a plastic
biohazard bag?
• A:Suction canister
• B:Plastic IV catheter
• C:Rigid suction catheter
• D:Blood-soaked gauze pads - Answer--You selected B; This is correct!
Reason:Contrary to popular belief, the end of a Teflon IV catheter (the plastic
catheter without the needle) can cut you; it is sharp! Therefore, it should be placed in
a puncture-proof sharps container, not a plastic biohazard bag. Items that are
blood-soaked or are otherwise contaminated, but cannot puncture, can safely be
placed in a plastic biohazard bag.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally
upset. An appropriate action to take would be to:
• A:tell the bystander to leave the scene at once.
• B:assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task.
• C:have the bystander assist you with patient care.
• D:notify the police and have the bystander removed. - Answer--You selected B;
This is correct!
Reason:One of the most effective ways to reduce stress in a bystander at the scene
of a mass-casualty incident is to assign the bystander a task that is not related to
patient care. This may involve assisting other bystanders who are having difficulties
as well or providing water to the rescuers. An obviously distressed bystander should
not simply be sent away from the scene, but should be looked at as a patient as well.
Clearly, if the bystander becomes aggressive or violent, law enforcement personnel
should get involved.
Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA)
respirator is correct?
• A:A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is
coughing.
• B:Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
Choice with Verified Answers &
Questions
The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to:
• A:recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient
care.
• B:provide protocols to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not
followed.
• C:deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
• D:ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education
hours. - Answer--You selected C; This is correct!
Reason: Providing continuing education to all personnel, recognizing those who
consistently provide competent patient care, and holding all personnel accountable
for adhering to the EMS protocols are all components of any EMS quality
improvement program. The ultimate goal, however, is to provide, as a system, a
consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
A set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an
EMT's job is called:
• A:the Medical Practices Act.
• B:confidentiality.
• C:a duty to act.
• D:scope of practice. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:The set of legal regulations and ethical considerations that define the job of
the EMT is called the scope of practice. The scope of practice provides a clear
delineation of the EMT's roles and responsibilities. Duty to act is defined as a legal
obligation to respond to every call for help while on duty and in your jurisdiction,
whether you are paid for your services or not. Confidentiality entails not releasing
any patient information to those not directly involved in the care of the patient. The
Medical Practices Act describes the minimum qualifications of those who may
engage in emergency medical care and establishes a means of certification.
The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT:
• A:evaluating the mechanism of injury.
,• B:determining if the scene is safe.
• C:assessing the need for assistance.
• D:donning personal protective gea - Answer--You selected A; The correct answer is
D;
Reason: The components of the scene size-up include determining scene safety,
assessing the mechanism of injury (MOI) or nature of illness (NOI), determining the
number of patients, and requesting additional help if needed. Personal protective
equipment (PPE) should be donned prior to beginning the scene size-up.
You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a skilled nursing
facility to the emergency department for evaluation of possible pneumonia. As you
are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see that the patient has a valid "do not
attempt resuscitation" order. During transport, you should:
• A:monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing care.
• B:provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable.
• C:perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
• D:disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting. -
Answer--You selected B; This is correct!
Reason:A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal
authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR laws
inherent to the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted
out-of-hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be adhered to if
they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must clearly state the
patient's medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian, and be
signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders have an expiration
date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact medical control for
guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable. Even in the presence of a
valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide supportive measures, such as
oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does not mean do not treat.
Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident?
• A:The number of patients overwhelms your resources.
• B:More than three vehicles are involved in the incident.
• C:More than five patients are involved.
• D:At least half of the patients are critically injured. - Answer--You selected A; This is
correct!
Reason:A mass-casualty incident (MCI) occurs any time the number of injured
patients overwhelms your available resources. It is not necessarily defined by the
number of patients, but rather your ability to effectively manage them. For example, if
you and your partner arrive at a scene and find two critically injured patients, you
,have an MCI (albeit a small-scale MCI) because two EMTs and one ambulance can
only care for one critically ill or injured patient effectively.
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an
example of:
• A:infection.
• B:indirect contact.
• C:transmission.
• D:exposure.
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an
example of:
• A:infection.
• B:indirect contact.
• C:transmission.
• D:exposure. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason: Exposure occurs when an individual comes in direct contact with blood or
other bodily fluids. Examples of direct exposure include blood splashing into the eyes
or mouth and an accidental stick with a contaminated needle or other sharp object.
Exposure does not always result in disease transmission and subsequent infection;
that depends on whether the patient has an infectious disease. Routine use of
standard precautions will afford the EMT the best protection from exposure to an
infectious disease.
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or
her blood pressure may constitute:
• A:assault.
• B:negligence.
• C:abandonment.
• D:battery. - Answer--You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:Battery is defined as unlawfully touching another person without his or her
consent. Obtaining consent from every responsive patient prior to rendering care is
of paramount importance. Assault is defined as instilling fear into another person, but
does not involve actually touching him or her. Negligence occurs when the EMT fails
to act as another prudent EMT would have acted in the same or similar situation.
Abandonment occurs when the EMT terminates patient care without the patient's
consent or transfers care of a patient to a provider of lesser training.
The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient
during the triage process because:
• A:the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported.
• B:all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient.
• C:three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient.
, • D:other patients may die of problems that may have been corrected. - Answer--You
selected D; This is correct!
Reason: Triage is the process of rapidly assessing patients in order to determine
their treatment priority. Focusing your attention on one patient during the triage
process not only defeats the purpose of triage (to do the greatest good for the
greatest number of people), but it neglects other patients who may die from injuries
or conditions that may have been corrected if detected earlier.
You are cleaning the back of the ambulance after transporting a patient with major
trauma. Which of the following contaminated items should NOT be placed in a plastic
biohazard bag?
• A:Suction canister
• B:Plastic IV catheter
• C:Rigid suction catheter
• D:Blood-soaked gauze pads - Answer--You selected B; This is correct!
Reason:Contrary to popular belief, the end of a Teflon IV catheter (the plastic
catheter without the needle) can cut you; it is sharp! Therefore, it should be placed in
a puncture-proof sharps container, not a plastic biohazard bag. Items that are
blood-soaked or are otherwise contaminated, but cannot puncture, can safely be
placed in a plastic biohazard bag.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally
upset. An appropriate action to take would be to:
• A:tell the bystander to leave the scene at once.
• B:assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task.
• C:have the bystander assist you with patient care.
• D:notify the police and have the bystander removed. - Answer--You selected B;
This is correct!
Reason:One of the most effective ways to reduce stress in a bystander at the scene
of a mass-casualty incident is to assign the bystander a task that is not related to
patient care. This may involve assisting other bystanders who are having difficulties
as well or providing water to the rescuers. An obviously distressed bystander should
not simply be sent away from the scene, but should be looked at as a patient as well.
Clearly, if the bystander becomes aggressive or violent, law enforcement personnel
should get involved.
Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA)
respirator is correct?
• A:A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is
coughing.
• B:Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
