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NUR 603: FINAL EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS

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NUR 603: FINAL EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS

Instelling
NUR 603
Vak
NUR 603

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NUR 603: FINAL EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE
SOLUTIONS




1) The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that
which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin -- Correct Answer ✔✔ B. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA)


2) Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
A) Depression
B) Anxiety
C) Substance-related addictions
D) Gambling addiction -- Correct Answer ✔✔ B. Anxiety


3) A patient with type 1 diabetes has diabetic ketoacidosis. Which first-line
treatment should the clinician prescribe?
A) NPH insulin
B) Regular insulin
C) IV normal saline
D) Thiazolidinedione -- Correct Answer ✔✔ B. Regular insulin

,4) A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last
month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode
lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future
events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic
disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the
following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
A) Pheochromocytoma
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Cardiac arrhythmias
D) All of the above -- Correct Answer ✔✔ D. All of the above


5) Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C) Tricyclic antidepressants
D) Cognitive behavioral therapy -- Correct Answer ✔✔ D. Cognitive
behavioral therapy


6) A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. There is no
history of diabetes mellitus. Which condition should be included in the differential
diagnosis?
A) Peripheral vascular disease
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Cushing's disease
D) Acromegaly -- Correct Answer ✔✔ B. Pheochromocytoma


7) A nondiabetic patient has idiopathic hypoglycemia. Which dietary instruction
should the clinician share with the patient?
A) Follow a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
B) Allow caffeine at each meal
C) Avoid nuts and seeds
D) Eat six small meals a day -- Correct Answer ✔✔ D. Eat six small
meals a day


8) Which laboratory test result is diagnostic for hypoglycemia?

, A) A1c 7.0%
B) Fasting blood sugar of 75 mg/dL
C) Glucose level 43 mg/dL
D) Random glucose level 64 mg/dL -- Correct Answer ✔✔ C. Glucose
level 43 mg/dL


9) A patient presents to the emergency department with delirium, dilated pupils
bilaterally, and hypoactive bowel sounds. Skin is flushed and dry; mucous
membranes are dry. Upon admission, a urinary catheter was inserted with no
output. These clinical manifestations describe which common toxidrome?
A) Cholinergic
B) Sedative-hypnotic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Sympathomimetic -- Correct Answer ✔✔ C. Anticholinergic


10) What condition is sometimes confused with anaphylaxis from an insect sting?
A) Heat stroke
B) Toxic syndrome
C) Vasovagal reaction
D) Inflammatory response -- Correct Answer ✔✔ C. Vasovagal
reaction


11) Which diagnostic test is the best to diagnose a subdural hematoma?
A) History
B) Positron emission tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan -- Correct Answer ✔✔ C.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


12) Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
A) Dogs
B) Cats
C) Humans
D) Rodents -- Correct Answer ✔✔ A. Dogs

, 13) Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and hemolytic toxins that may
destroy tissue?
A) Tick
B) Brown recluse spider
C) Wasp
D) Stinging caterpillar -- Correct Answer ✔✔ B. Brown recluse spider


14) Why are people with cystic fibrosis (CF) especially vulnerable to heat stroke?
A) Intravascular coagulation prevents the production of chloride.
B) Blood flow to the skin is impaired in temperatures above 95°.
C) Sweat glands are inactive in CF.
D) Salts from perspiration are not reabsorbed after sweating. --
Correct Answer ✔✔ D. Salts from perspiration are not reabsorbed
after sweating.


15) Why do benzodiazepines have less potential for toxicity than barbiturates?
A) They cause decreased neuronal activity, depressed central
sympathetic tone, and inhibit cardiac contractility.
B) They increase ligand affinity and the frequency of ion channel
opening, but not the duration of time the channel remains open.
C) They act directly on inhibitory gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
receptors.
D) They increase the average opening time of chloride ion channels. --
Correct Answer ✔✔ B. They increase ligand affinity and the
frequency of ion channel opening, but not the duration of time the
channel remains open.


16) A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze
or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
A) CN II
B) CN III
C) CN IV
D) CN V -- Correct Answer ✔✔ C. CN IV

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