PEAT 3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026

PEAT 3 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2026 When assessing normal standing posture, where should the gravity line fall? A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus B. Posterior to the lateral malleolus C. Anterior to the greater trochanter D. Posterior to the greater trochanter - Answers A. Anterior to the lateral malleolus In a patient with unilateral hip impairment, a cane is ordinarily used on the: A. Uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the involved side B. Involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on that side C. Uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the adductors on the involved side D. Involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on the uninvolved side - Answers A. Uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the involved side A patient with a recent history of immobilization has a new onset of unilateral leg swelling with dependent edema. This condition is MOST likely due to: A. Congestive heart failure B. Peripheral arterial disease C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Lymphedema - Answers C. Deep vein thrombosis Which of the following areas is MOST susceptible to a pressure injury when a patient is in sideyling position? A. Heels B. Malleolus C. Sacrum D. Ischial tuberosity - Answers B. Malleolus Which of the following tests is used to assess volitional movement of the extremities after an individual has had a cerebrovascular accident? A. Functional Reach Test B. Functional Status Index C. Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment (Tinetti) D. Fugi-Meyer Assessment - Answers D. Fugi-Meyer Assessment Which of the following problems is MOST important to address in a 10-year-old child who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy? A. Increased joint mobility B. Increased ligamentous laxity C. Decreased ability to walk independently D. Decreased sensation in the lower extremities - Answers C. Decreased ability to walk independently Four months after sustaining a fractured humerus, a patient has reached a plateau. Active and passive shoulder motions have improved but remain impaired. The patient reports pain and tenderness when the fracture site is palpated. The patient's temperature is 98.6. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient's lack of recent progress? A. Infection of the fractured bone B. Nonunion of the fracture C. Heterotopic ossification D. Compartment syndrome - Answers B. Nonunion of the fracture Which of the following activities should be AVOIDED by a patient who is at risk of developing lymphedema? A. Exercising in a hot environment B. Exercising with light resistance C. Exercising in a cool environment D. Exercising while wearing compression garments - Answers A. Exercising in a hot environment A patient has been experiencing postural hypotension when moving from supine to sitting position. To reduce the risk of hypotension, which of the following actions should be implemented prior to treatment? A. Elevate the head of the bed B. Place the bed in the Trendelenburg position C. Remove the patient's compression stockings D. Encourage the patient to limit consumption of salt - Answers A. Elevate the head of the bed For a patient who had a total shoulder arthroplasty 5 days ago, which of the following interventions would MOST effectively minimize joint adhesions? A. Active range of motion in the scapular plane B. Gentle muscle sets with the upper extremity immobilized in a sling C. Passive range of motion in a pain-free range D. Joint mobilization using small-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance - Answers C. Passive range of motion in a pain-free range When providing therapeutic intervention and education to a patient in the confused-agitated stage of recovery subsequent to a traumatic brain injury, the PTA should: A. Use animated gestures and voice tones to stimulate the patient's attentiveness B. Challenge the patient to recall activities and instructions from the previous session C. Provide repeated and detailed instructions until the desired response is elicited D. Be prepared with alternative activities if the patient does not attend to task - Answers D. Be prepared with alternative activities if the patient does not attend to task A patient consistently catches the right toe box of the shoe while walking. Which of the following muscle groups MOST likely needs to be strengthened? A. Eversion muscles B. Inversion muscles C. Dorsiflexion muscles D. Plantar flexion muscles - Answers C. Dorsiflexion muscles Which of the following laboratory reports is MOST useful in determining the effects of chronic diarrhea and vomiting? A. Complete blood count B. Renal function tests C. Serum electrolytes D. Serum enzymes - Answers C. Serum electrolytes A patient reports a history of multiple falls when turning around from a kitchen table to place items into the refrigerator. Which of the following assessments would provide the MOST useful information about the patient's impairment? A. Berg Balance Scale B. Functional Reach Test C. Timed Walking Test D. Sharpened Romberg Test - Answers A. Berg Balance Scale The symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, pruritus, and peripheral neuropathy are MOST consistent with which of the following disorders? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Lymphedema C. Myocardial infarction D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Answers Type 2 diabetes Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is CONTRAINDICATED for use on a patient: A. With a demand pacemaker B. With a history of stable angina C. With terminal cancer D. Who is pregnant during labor - Answers A. With a demand pacemaker The Functional Independence Measure (FIM) and the Barthel Index have been shown to have high concurrent validity with each other as functional measures for patients who have has a stroke. Which of the following conclusions is MOST appropriate about use of the instruments to assess functional status in a patient with a stroke? A. Either test could be used B. Both tests should be used C. Neither test should be used D. Another test should be used with either of the tests - Answers A. Either test could be used A patient using a transtibial prosthesis excessively flexes the right knee during the early stance phase of the gait cycle. Which of the following causes is PRIMARILY responsible for this gait deviation? A. Socket too far anterior B. Socket too far posterior C. Excessive foot inset D. Excessive foot outset - Answers A. Socket too far anterior Which of the following orthotic irregularities is MOST likely to contribute to a patient exhibiting foot slap during the early stance phase of gait? A. Inadequate dorsiflexion stop B. Inadequate dorsiflexion assist C. Inadequate plantar flexion assist D. Inadaquate transverse plane alignment - Answers B. Inadequate dorsiflexion assist A patient who has a spinal cord injury demonstrates signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate to take? A. Put an abdominal binder on the patient B. Place the patient in supine position C. Wrap the patient's lower extremities D. Check the patient's catheter tube - Answers D. Check the patient's catheter tube A PTA is instructing a patient in prone shoulder extension using a 5-lb weight. What type of muscular contraction of the latissimus dorsi is involved when the patient extends from 0 to 30 degrees? A. Isometric B. Isokinetic C. Concentric D. Eccentric - Answers C. Concentric For a patient who demonstrates an equinus gait, which of the following muscles should be tested for weakness? A. Soleus B. Gastrocnemius C. Tibialis anterior D. Tibialis posterior - Answers C. Tibialis anterior A patient correctly demonstrated home exercises to strengthen quadriceps and hip flexors. This data should be included in which section of the documentation? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan - Answers B. Objective A patient who has type 1 diabetes is riding a stationary bicycle when a hypoglycemic episode occurs. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be the expected physiological response? A. Muscle weakness, nausea, and vomiting B. Fruity, acetone-smelling breath and an increased respiratory rate C. Onset of irritability, nervousness, or emotional lability D. Polyuria, thirst, and dehydration - Answers C. Onset of irritability, nervousness, or emotional lability Which of the following structures would be MOST commonly involved in a surgical release for Dupuytren contracture? A. First metacarpal joint capsule B. Transverse carpal ligament C. Annular pulleys D. Palmar fascia - Answers D. Palmar fascia When monitoring the vital signs of a person who has mitral valve prolapse, which of the following findings is MOST likely to be observed? A. Bradypnea B. Bradycardia C. Tachypnea D. Tachycardia - Answers D. Tachycardia A patient has akinesia. Which of the following gait dysfunctions is MOST likely to be present? A. Decreased step length B. Increased base of support C. Difficulty attempting to stop D. Sudden cessation of movement - Answers D. Sudden cessation of movement Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate to address impaired muscle tone in a patient who has hypotonicity? A. Weight-bearing through the involved limb B. Slow, rhythmic rotation of the involved limb C. Prolonged ice application over the belly of the involved muscle D. Static stretching with manual pressure over the tendon of the involved muscle - Answers A. Weight-bearing through the involved limb Onset of bloody stools is an indication of which of the following conditions? A. Acute appendicitis B. Strangulated hernia C. Celiac disease D. Colorectal cancer - Answers D. Colorectal cancer Compared with healthy individuals, a patient who has restrictive pulmonary disease is MOST likely to have which of the following changes in lung volumes or capacities? A. Increased vital capacity and increased residual volume B. Increased vital capacity and decreased total lung capacity C. Decreased inspiratory reserve volume and decreased vital capacity D. Decreased total lung capacity and increased functional residual capacity - Answers C. Decreased inspiratory reserve volume and decreased vital capacity A patient reports numbness in the perineal region and mild urinary incontinence. These symptoms are MOST likely caused by which of the following conditions? A. Sciatic neuropathy B. Femoral artery occlusion C. Lumbar spinal stenosis D. Sacral nerve root impingement - Answers D. Sacral nerve root impingement A patient with burns to 35% of total body surface area reports drinking large quantities of water throughout the day. Which of the following conditions is the patient at GREATEST risk of developing? A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyponatremia - Answers D. Hyponatremia The MOST important precaution for preventing a nosocomial infection is: A. Wearing a mask B. Wearing gloves C. Proper hand washing D. Maintaining a sterile field - Answers C. Proper hand washing Which of the following treatment strategies is MOST appropriate for a patient who has acute carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Strengthening the wrist flexors B. Strengthening pinch and grip functions with the wrist in flexion C. Maintaining a neutral wrist position during work and other activities D. Applying direct pressure and cross-friction over the anterior aspect of the wrist - Answers C. Maintaining a neutral wrist position during work and other activities Which of the following characteristics MOST likely would be associated with the presence of a superficial partial-thickness burn? A. Extreme pain B. Eschar C. Marked edema D. Dry surface - Answers A. Extreme pain When a cold pack is applied for edema control, what is the correct order of sensations that the patient should experience? A. Aching, burning, cold, numbness B. Aching, cold, burning, numbness C. Cold, aching, burning, numbness D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness - Answers D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness A patient has difficulty maintaining quiet standing balance and demonstrates a loss of balance during small perturbations in a forward direction. Which of the muscles should be strengthened? A. Quadriceps B. Tibialis anterior C. Abdominals D. Gastrocnemius - Answers D. Gastrocnemius A patient with a diagnosis of left-sided Bell's palsy would have difficulty: A. Smiling B. Chewing food C. Scanning to the left D. Hearing on the left - Answers A. Smiling When teaching a patient to produce an effective cough, the PTA should do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Instruct the patient to use the abdominal muscles B. Assess the patient's voluntary cough C. Instruct the patient to use pursed-lip breathing D. Demonstrate a sharp, deep, double cough - Answers C. Instruct the patient to use pursed-lip breathing Which of the following types of feedback provides knowledge of results? A. Number of accurate movement B. Kinematic accuracy of the movement C. Directions for accurate completion of the movement D. Decreasing frequency of reports of movement accuracy - Answers A. Number of accurate movement A PTA is preparing to enter the room of a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which of the following types of personal protective equipment is MOST appropriate for the assistant to use in this situation? A. Gloves B. Over-the-ear surgical mask C. Goggles D. Dual-mist respirator - Answers D. Dual-mist respirator Which of the following interventions would MOST improve outcomes for a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? A. Aerobic exercise B. Cessation of smoking C. Pharmacological management D. Ventilatory muscle training - Answers B. Cessation of smoking A PTA is reviewing postoperative precautions with a patient who has a total hip arthroplasty with an anterolateral surgical approach. Which of the following instructions is MOST appropriate for the patient? A. When walking backward, lead with the involved leg B. When walking step fully through with the uninvolved leg C. Avoid activities that involve standing on the operated leg and rotating toward the involved side D. Avoid activities that involve standing on the operated leg and rotating away from the involved side - Answers D. Avoid activities that involve standing on the operated leg and rotating toward the involved side Which of the following value ranges is considered NORMAL for ejection fraction of the heart? A. 5% to 20% B. 25% to 45% C. 55% to 75% D. 80% to 100% - Answers C. 55% to 75% A patient's history includes a lower motor neuron lesion. Which of the following should the PTA expect to observe while treating this patient? A. Clonus B. Atrophy C. Hyperreflexia D. Spasticity - Answers B. Atrophy Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for treating a person who is having a seizure with convulsions? A. Wait for the convulsions to cease, and then carefully turn the person's head to one side in case vomiting occurs B. Place the person in a supine position, and hold the person tightly to avoid muscle or joint damage by violent convulsions C. Keep the person's mouth open using something firm and not likely to break off D. Observe the person's respirations, and begin rescue breathing if the person does not take a breath in at least 30 seconds - Answers A. Wait for the convulsions to cease, and then carefully turn the person's head to one side in case vomiting occurs A patient with a hiatal hernia is being seen in physical therapy. Which of the following positions is most important for the patient to AVOID during exercise? A. Sitting B. Standing C. Semi-Fowler D. Supine - Answers D. Supine Following a cerebrovascular accident, a patient has difficulty producing the correct word or sequence of words. The patient MOST likely has which of the following impairments? A. Apnea B. Ataxia C. Aphasia D. Apraxia - Answers C. Aphasia During a stand-to-sit transfer, which of the following muscle functions is occurring? A. Concentric quadriceps control of knee flexion B. Eccentric quadriceps control of knee flexion C. Concentric iliopsoas control of hip flexion D. Eccentric iliopsoas control of hip flexion - Answers B. Eccentric quadriceps control of knee flexion When performing mechanical cervical traction to increase the intervertebral space at the C5-C7 levels, which of the following angles of cervical flexion would be MOST appropriate? A. 0 to 5 degrees B. 10 to 15 degrees C. 25 to 30 degrees D. 40 to 45 degrees - Answers C. 25 to 30 degrees A PTA is asked to begin partial weight-bearing gait training with a patient. The patient is unable to maintain the weight-bearing precautions because of dementia. The assistant's BEST course of action is to: A. continue with the plan of care for 2 more days to see if the patient shows improvement B. report the patient's inability to maintain weight-bearing status to the physical therapist C. discontinue the plan of care, and document that gait training is inappropriate for the patient D. recommend withholding physical therapy treatment until the patient is able to comply with the weight-bearing precautions - Answers B. report the patient's inability to maintain weight-bearing status to the physical therapist A patient with adhesive capsulitis demonstrates a capsular pattern of limitation. What shoulder motion would be the MOST limited? A. Medial (internal) rotation B. Lateral (external) rotation C. Abduction D. Adduction - Answers B. Lateral (external) rotation Which of the following hand deformities is MOST commonly related to the progression of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Volar (palmar) subluxation with ulnar drift B. Volar (palmar) subluxation with radial drift C. Dorsal subluxation with radial drift