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PEAT 2 SECTION 1 EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

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PEAT 2 SECTION 1 EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 Which of the following ranges for respiratory rate would be NORMAL for an 8-year-old child? 1.12 to 20 breaths/minute 2.18 to 30 breaths/minute 3.24 to 40 breaths/minute 4.30 to 60 breaths/minute - Answers 2.18 to 30 breaths/minute 1. A normal range for an adult (age 18 years and older) is 12 to 20 breaths/minute. 2. A normal range for a child in elementary school (age 6-12 years) is 18 to 30 breaths/minute. 3. A normal range for a toddler (age 1-3 years) is 24 to 40 breaths/minute. 4. A normal range for an infant (age birth to 1 year) is 30 to 60 breaths/minute. A patient has pitting edema that is worse in the evenings and improves with elevation of the affected limb. Which of the following stages of lymphedema is MOST likely present? 1.Stage 0 2.Stage 1 3.Stage 2 4.Stage 3 - Answers 2.Stage 1 1. In Stage 0 lymphedema there are no clinical signs of edema although reduced lymph transport capacity is present. 2. Stage 1 lymphedema includes pitting edema, reversible with elevation, and edema that is increased with activity, heat, and humidity and is better in the morning. 3. Stage 2 lymphedema includes nonpitting edema that is irreversible along with fibrotic skin changes 4. In Stage 3 lymphedema, there is an increase in severe nonpitting fibrotic edema and atrophic changes in the skin, including hyperkeratosis, papillomas, and warts. A patient has a recent diagnosis of lymphedema. The patient has soft, pitting edema that does not resolve with elevation and increases with standing and activity. Which of the following forms of compression is BEST for the intensive treatment phase? 1.Long-stretch bandages 2.Short-stretch bandages 3.Circular knit compression garment 4.Flat knit compression garment - Answers 2.Short-stretch bandages This patient has a new diagnosis of stage 2 lymphedema (Hillegass, p. 660), which is an indication for phase 1 of treatment for lymphedema wherein bandages are the key component of compression. Short-stretch bandages are the bandages of choice for treating lymphedema because they are latex free and they stretch approximately 60% more than their original length. These bandages also provide a low resting pressure and high working pressure, which provides compression of the more superficial lymphatic and venous vessels A physical therapist would be required to wear a surgical face mask when working on transfer training with a patient who has which of the following conditions? 1.Rubeola 2.Tuberculosis 3.Varicella zoster 4.Bacterial pneumonia - Answers 4.Bacterial pneumonia 1. Airborne precautions, including wearing a particulate respirator, should be used when working with patients who have rubeola. 2. Particulate respirators are recommended when working with patients who have tuberculosis. 3. Airborne precautions, including wearing a particulate respirator, should be used when working with patients who have varicella zoster virus. 4. Droplet precautions, including wearing a face mask, should be used when working with patients who have bacterial pneumonia. A patient who has an acute ankle sprain is being instructed in non-weight-bearing gait with crutches prior to discharge from the emergency department. Which of the following approaches by the physical therapist would MOST effectively facilitate learning? 1.Give verbal instructions in how to use the crutches. 2.Provide photographs of someone using crutches. 3.Have the patient verbally repeat the instructions and demonstrate use of the crutches. 4.Demonstrate use of the crutches and provide the patient with written instructions. - Answers 3.Have the patient verbally repeat the instructions and demonstrate use of the crutches. 3. When learning a new task, the patient is in the cognitive stage of learning. An effective training strategy in this stage is to have the patient verbalize task components and requirements (O'Sullivan). In the first stage, the goal of the learner is to understand the task dynamics A patient's examination reveals weakness with scapular upward rotation and protraction. Which of the following nerves is MOST likely affected? 1.Axillary 2.Subscapular 3.Suprascapular 4.Long thoracic - Answers 4.Long thoracic 4. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior, which is responsible for upward rotation and protraction of the scapula A physical therapist performs the manual muscle test shown in the photograph and notes weakness of the musculature. The photo shows the dorsiflexion MMT. Which of the following nerve roots is MOST likely involved? 1.L1 2.L3 3.L5 4.S1 - Answers 3.L5 3. The therapist in the photograph is testing the tibialis anterior (dorsiflexion), which is innervated by the deep fibular (peroneal) nerve (L4- L5) A 13-year-old patient reports groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh. The patient exhibits an antalgic pattern, and the involved lower extremity is maintained in a laterally (externally) rotated position. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present? 1.Developmental hip dysplasia 2.Osgood-Schlatter disorder 3.Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease 4.Slipped capital femoral epiphysis - Answers 4.Slipped capital femoral epiphysis 4. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis generally occurs in adolescents. Symptoms include antalgic gait and pain in the groin, knee, or medial thigh. This disorder is more likely to present with antalgic gait and a laterally (externally) rotated lower extremity. When the onset is acute, the adolescent will be unable to bear weight on the affected extremity. Obesity is often a factor in the development of this condition. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for a 12-year-old child who has a history of progressive idiopathic scoliosis and a Cobb angle of 45°? 1.Orthotic management 2.Postural correction 3.Surgical intervention 4.Spinal stabilization exercises - Answers 3.Surgical intervention 1. Orthotic management is typically indicated for children who have idiopathic scoliosis and who are skeletally immature and have a Cobb angle of 25° to 45°. 2. Postural correction is not sufficient to manage a curve of 45°. 3. The major indication for spinal fusion is a documented, progressive idiopathic curve and a Cobb angle greater than 40°. 4. Exercise alone is not sufficient to manage a curve of 45°. A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease is MOST likely to benefit from education to reduce consumption of which of the following types of food? 1.Coffee, fatty foods 2.Coffee, dairy foods 3.High-sugar foods, fatty foods 4.High-sugar foods, dairy foods - Answers 1.Coffee, fatty foods 1. Modifications to help manage symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease includes avoiding eating large meals that can distend the stomach and avoiding items such as chocolate, peppermint, alcohol, caffeinated coffee, and fried and/or fatty foods. Which of the following terms BEST describes the extent to which an intervention produces a desired outcome under usual clinical conditions? 1.Effect size 2.Efficacy 3.Effectiveness 4.Minimal clinically important difference - Answers 3.Effectiveness 1. The effect size is the magnitude of the difference between two mean values. 2. Efficacy is the extent to which an intervention produces a desired outcome under ideal conditions. 3. Effectiveness is the extent to which an intervention produces a desired outcome under usual clinical conditions. 4. The minimal clinically important difference is the smallest treatment effect that would result in a change in patient management, given its side effects, costs, and inconveniences. A patient has polyuria, polydipsia, and a fasting plasma glucose level of 152 mg/dL (8.4 mmol/L). The findings are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? 1.Primary adrenal insufficiency 2.Impaired glucose tolerance 3.Cushing syndrome 4.Diabetes mellitus - Answers 4.Diabetes mellitus 4. Diabetes mellitus is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level of greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L) A patient has a negative result on a stress test for the medial collateral ligament. A radiograph shows the coronoid process is inferior to the trochlea. The patient MOST likely has which of the following injuries? 1.Varus displacement 2.Valgus displacement 3.Anterior displacement 4.Posterolateral displacement - Answers 4.Posterolateral displacement 4. Displacing the coronoid process inferior to the trochlea requires the ulna to be displaced posterolateral to the humerus. A physical therapist is educating a patient on the use of a moist hot pack for home treatment. For the patient to prevent burns and still receive the benefits of superficial heat, which of the following heat application time frames is MOST appropriate? 1.5-10 minutes 2.20-30 minutes 3.45-60 minutes 4.70-90 minutes - Answers 2.20-30 minutes 2. The ideal amount of time for therapeutic heating effects varies from 15-30 minutes. A patient has right flank pain after sustaining a blow to the back during a sporting event. The spine is pain free upon palpation. The paraspinal muscles are free of muscle spasms and tenderness. Percussion of the right costovertebral angle reproduces the pain and causes the pain to radiate to the right groin area. Which of the following structures is MOST likely involved? 1.Bladder 2.Appendix 3.Spleen 4.Kidney - Answers 4.Kidney 4. The kidneys are located in the region of the costovertebral angle. Pain upon percussion of this region is common in kidney involvement. Pain associated with the kidneys usually refers to the ipsilateral flank and groin.

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PEAT 2
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PEAT 2

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

PEAT 2 SECTION 1 EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

Which of the following ranges for respiratory rate would be NORMAL for an 8-year-old child?
1.12 to 20 breaths/minute
2.18 to 30 breaths/minute
3.24 to 40 breaths/minute
4.30 to 60 breaths/minute - Answers 2.18 to 30 breaths/minute

1. A normal range for an adult (age 18 years and older) is 12 to 20 breaths/minute.
2. A normal range for a child in elementary school (age 6-12 years) is 18 to 30 breaths/minute.
3. A normal range for a toddler (age 1-3 years) is 24 to 40 breaths/minute.
4. A normal range for an infant (age birth to 1 year) is 30 to 60 breaths/minute.
A patient has pitting edema that is worse in the evenings and improves with elevation of the affected
limb. Which of the following stages of lymphedema is MOST likely present?
1.Stage 0
2.Stage 1
3.Stage 2
4.Stage 3 - Answers 2.Stage 1

1. In Stage 0 lymphedema there are no clinical signs of edema although reduced lymph transport
capacity is present.
2. Stage 1 lymphedema includes pitting edema, reversible with elevation, and edema that is increased
with activity, heat, and humidity and is better in the morning.
3. Stage 2 lymphedema includes nonpitting edema that is irreversible along with fibrotic skin changes
4. In Stage 3 lymphedema, there is an increase in severe nonpitting fibrotic edema and atrophic
changes in the skin, including hyperkeratosis, papillomas, and warts.
A patient has a recent diagnosis of lymphedema. The patient has soft, pitting edema that does not
resolve with elevation and increases with standing and activity. Which of the following forms of
compression is BEST for the intensive treatment phase?
1.Long-stretch bandages
2.Short-stretch bandages
3.Circular knit compression garment
4.Flat knit compression garment - Answers 2.Short-stretch bandages

This patient has a new diagnosis of stage 2 lymphedema (Hillegass, p. 660), which is an indication for
phase 1 of treatment for lymphedema wherein bandages are the key component of compression.
Short-stretch bandages are the bandages of choice for treating lymphedema because they are latex
free and they stretch approximately 60% more than their original length. These bandages also provide
a low resting pressure and high working pressure, which provides compression of the more superficial
lymphatic and venous vessels
A physical therapist would be required to wear a surgical face mask when working on transfer training
with a patient who has which of the following conditions?
1.Rubeola
2.Tuberculosis
3.Varicella zoster
4.Bacterial pneumonia - Answers 4.Bacterial pneumonia

1. Airborne precautions, including wearing a particulate respirator, should be used when working with
patients who have rubeola.
2. Particulate respirators are recommended when working with patients who have tuberculosis.
3. Airborne precautions, including wearing a particulate respirator, should be used when working with
patients who have varicella zoster virus.
4. Droplet precautions, including wearing a face mask, should be used when working with patients
who have bacterial pneumonia.
A patient who has an acute ankle sprain is being instructed in non-weight-bearing gait with crutches
prior to discharge from the emergency department. Which of the following approaches by the
physical therapist would MOST effectively facilitate learning?

, 1.Give verbal instructions in how to use the crutches.
2.Provide photographs of someone using crutches.
3.Have the patient verbally repeat the instructions and demonstrate use of the crutches.
4.Demonstrate use of the crutches and provide the patient with written instructions. - Answers
3.Have the patient verbally repeat the instructions and demonstrate use of the crutches.

3. When learning a new task, the patient is in the cognitive stage of learning. An effective training
strategy in this stage is to have the patient verbalize task components and requirements (O'Sullivan).
In the first stage, the goal of the learner is to understand the task dynamics
A patient's examination reveals weakness with scapular upward rotation and protraction. Which of
the following nerves is MOST likely affected?
1.Axillary
2.Subscapular
3.Suprascapular
4.Long thoracic - Answers 4.Long thoracic

4. The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior, which is responsible for upward rotation
and protraction of the scapula
A physical therapist performs the manual muscle test shown in the photograph and notes weakness
of the musculature. The photo shows the dorsiflexion MMT. Which of the following nerve roots is
MOST likely involved?
1.L1
2.L3
3.L5
4.S1 - Answers 3.L5
3. The therapist in the photograph is testing the tibialis anterior (dorsiflexion), which is innervated by
the deep fibular (peroneal) nerve (L4- L5)
A 13-year-old patient reports groin pain that radiates into the anterior thigh. The patient exhibits an
antalgic pattern, and the involved lower extremity is maintained in a laterally (externally) rotated
position. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely present?
1.Developmental hip dysplasia
2.Osgood-Schlatter disorder
3.Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
4.Slipped capital femoral epiphysis - Answers 4.Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

4. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis generally occurs in adolescents. Symptoms include antalgic gait
and pain in the groin, knee, or medial thigh. This disorder is more likely to present with antalgic gait
and a laterally (externally) rotated lower extremity. When the onset is acute, the adolescent will be
unable to bear weight on the affected extremity. Obesity is often a factor in the development of this
condition.
Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for a 12-year-old child who has a history of
progressive idiopathic scoliosis and a Cobb angle of 45°?
1.Orthotic management
2.Postural correction
3.Surgical intervention
4.Spinal stabilization exercises - Answers 3.Surgical intervention

1. Orthotic management is typically indicated for children who have idiopathic scoliosis and who are
skeletally immature and have a Cobb angle of 25° to 45°.
2. Postural correction is not sufficient to manage a curve of 45°.
3. The major indication for spinal fusion is a documented, progressive idiopathic curve and a Cobb
angle greater than 40°.
4. Exercise alone is not sufficient to manage a curve of 45°.
A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease is MOST likely to benefit from education to reduce
consumption of which of the following types of food?
1.Coffee, fatty foods
2.Coffee, dairy foods

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