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NR 668 CEA/NR 668 CEA ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GUARANTEED PASS A+

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NR 668 CEA/NR 668 CEA ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GUARANTEED PASS A+

Institution
NR 668 CEA
Course
NR 668 CEA

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NR 668 CEA/NR 668 CEA ACTUAL EXAM 2026-2027 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES(VERIFIED ANSWERS) GUARANTEED PASS A+



Question 1​
A 72-year-old male with a 10-year history of Parkinson’s disease presents with worsening confusion,
visual hallucinations, and fluctuating attention over the past 3 days. His current medications include
carbidopa/levodopa and pramipexole. What is the most appropriate next step?​
A. Increase carbidopa/levodopa dose​
B. Add quetiapine​
C. Reduce or discontinue pramipexole​
D. Start rivastigmine

Rationale: Dopamine agonists (pramipexole) are strongly associated with hallucinations and confusion
in elderly Parkinson’s patients. Reducing or discontinuing the agonist is first-line before adding
antipsychotics or changing carbidopa/levodopa.




Question 2​
A 45-year-old female with major depressive disorder has failed trials of sertraline, venlafaxine, and
bupropion. She is now started on phenelzine. Which dietary instruction is most critical?​
A. Avoid grapefruit juice​
B. Avoid aged cheeses and red wine​
C. Increase fluid intake​
D. Take with high-fat meals

Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses,
cured meats, red wine) can cause hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit affects CYP3A4, relevant to some but
not primarily MAOIs.

,Question 3​
A 28-year-old male presents with a first episode of mania with psychotic features. He has no prior
psychiatric history. What is the initial treatment of choice?​
A. Lithium monotherapy​
B. Atypical antipsychotic monotherapy​
C. Valproate plus SSRI​
D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Rationale: For acute mania with psychosis, an atypical antipsychotic (e.g., risperidone, olanzapine) is
recommended for rapid symptom control. Lithium has a slower onset. ECT is for refractory cases.




Question 4​
A 60-year-old female with Alzheimer’s disease is started on donepezil. One week later, her family
reports she is sleeping 14 hours per day and has a heart rate of 52 bpm. What is the most appropriate
action?​
A. Increase donepezil to therapeutic dose​
B. Add modafinil​
C. Hold donepezil and evaluate for bradycardia​
D. Continue donepezil and monitor

Rationale: Donepezil can cause symptomatic bradycardia. Heart rate 52 with hypersomnia suggests
cholinergic excess. Holding the medication and evaluating (EKG, vital signs) is safest.




Question 5​
A patient with bipolar I disorder on lithium for 2 years develops polyuria and polydipsia. Serum
lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?​
A. Diabetes mellitus​
B. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus​
C. Psychogenic polydipsia​
D. Hypercalcemia

Rationale: Lithium inhibits ADH action in the collecting duct, causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
Serum lithium is therapeutic. Polyuria is not due to hyperglycemia or calcium.

,Question 6​
A 34-year-old woman with panic disorder on paroxetine reports停药 (discontinuation) due to
pregnancy. She now has dizziness, nausea, and “electric shock” sensations. What is the diagnosis?​
A. Relapse of panic disorder​
B. Serotonin syndrome​
C. SSRI discontinuation syndrome​
D. Vestibular neuritis

Rationale: Abrupt SSRI cessation causes flu-like symptoms, sensory disturbances (electric shocks),
and GI distress. Onset is days after stopping. Serotonin syndrome requires excess serotonin.




Question 7​
A patient with schizophrenia on clozapine has a white blood cell count of 2800/mm³. What is the
immediate action?​
A. Continue clozapine and repeat CBC in 1 week​
B. Increase clozapine dose​
C. Stop clozapine and initiate REMS protocol​
D. Add filgrastim

Rationale: WBC <3000/mm³ is moderate neutropenia per clozapine REMS. Clozapine must be
interrupted, and the patient monitored per protocol. Filgrastim is not first-line.




Question 8​
Which medication is most likely to cause weight gain and new-onset diabetes?​
A. Haloperidol​
B. Fluphenazine​
C. Olanzapine​
D. Ziprasidone

Rationale: Olanzapine has high metabolic risk (weight gain, dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia).
Ziprasidone is weight-neutral. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are lower risk.

, Question 9​
A 22-year-old male with ADHD is on mixed amphetamine salts. He reports palpitations and blood
pressure of 150/95 mmHg. What is the next step?​
A. Add propranolol​
B. Discontinue stimulant and assess for underlying hypertension​
C. Increase dose to improve focus​
D. Switch to atomoxetine immediately

Rationale: Significant hypertension on stimulants requires stopping the drug and evaluating primary
hypertension or stimulant-induced effect. Atomoxetine can also increase BP.




Question 10​
A 50-year-old male with alcohol use disorder is prescribed naltrexone. Which statement indicates a
need for further teaching?​
A. “I should not take opioids for pain while on this.”​
B. “This will reduce my craving for alcohol.”​
C. “I can drink alcohol while on this to test if it works.”​
D. “It may cause nausea, especially at first.”

Rationale: Naltrexone reduces craving and blocks opioid receptors, but drinking is not required for
effect and undermines treatment. Patients should aim for abstinence.




Question 11​
A patient on valproate for bipolar disorder has routine labs. Which abnormality is most specific to
valproate?​
A. Hyponatremia​
B. Hyperammonemia​
C. Hypocalcemia​
D. Elevated creatinine

Rationale: Valproate can cause hyperammonemia, even with normal LFTs, due to inhibition of urea
cycle enzymes. Hyponatremia is more common with carbamazepine or SSRIs.

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