PCCN EXAM REVIEW 2026: 124 HIGH-YIELD
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS!!
A 17-year-old male client is recovering from idiopathic infective endocarditis. The
nurse should include which of the following teaching points in the discharge care
plan for this client?
A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures
B. Drinking no more than 1 liter of fluid per day
C. Strictly avoiding caffeine or other stimulants
D. Encouraging a healthy low-fat diet that includes at least 2 grams of sodium
intake per day
- answer-A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures
Feedback
Client with a history of infective endocarditis should take prophylactic antibiotics
before dental procedures and some surgical procedures.
A 18-year-old male patient is receiving a series of albuterol treatments via
oxygenated nebulizer to treat an acute severe asthma attack. The BEST way to
evaluate the effectiveness of these treatments is to:
A. Monitor for absence of auscultated wheezing
B. Ask the patient if his breathing feels easier
C. Compare the patient's current peak flow reading with his baseline readings
D. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading of >90%
- answer-C. Compare the patient's current peak flow reading with his baseline
readings
Feedback
Comparing peak flow readings to baseline is a cost-effective, efficient, objective
method to determine effectiveness of asthma treatments. Absence of wheezing may
indicate further airflow restriction, so it is not a definitive method of determining
effectiveness of treatments.
A 19-year-old male patient admitted with fever, malaise, and headache exhibits
positive Brudzinski's and Kernig's signs. These signs indicate:
- answer-Central nervous system (CNS) infection
,Feedback
Kernig's sign is the inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed 90 degrees.
Brudzinski's sign is the flexion of the hips and knees that occurs when the neck is
flexed. Both of these signs, when positive, indicate meningitis.
A 22-year-old male patient is admitted for observation following a linear temporal
skull fracture from a skiing accident. Upon admission at 2 pm, the patient was alert
and oriented, and reports that he "passed out for a second" immediately after his
accident. At 4 pm, the nurse notes that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is
8. The nurse should:
A. Continue to monitor for changes
B. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
C. Prepare the patient for burr hole placement with clot evacuation
D. Prepare to administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) to reverse occlusive
stroke
- answer-C. Prepare the patient for burr hole placement with clot evacuation
Feedback
This patient is exhibiting classic signs and symptoms of an epidural hematoma.
Surgical intervention to remove the hematoma and relieve pressure on the brain
should be performed as soon as possible.
A 24-year-old male patient sustained blunt chest trauma during an automobile
crash, and is admitted to the telemetry unit for monitoring. All of the following
assessment details may indicate the development of a hemothorax EXCEPT:
- answer-Widening pulse pressure
Feedback
Signs of a hemothorax may include hypotension, tachycardia, low oxygen
saturations, elevated carbon dioxide levels (hypercapnia), and tracheal deviation to
the unaffected side. Subcutaneous emphysema may also be present (even in the
case of hemothorax) if the injury to the lung allows air to seep out of the chest
cavity. Pulse pressure narrows because of the compression of the heart that occurs
with both hemothoraces and pneumothoraces.
A 25-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse
should prepare to assist with a pericardiocentesis when the client exhibits which of
the following signs or symptoms?
A. Pericardial friction rub
B. Sharp chest pain over the sternal area
C. Elevated blood C-reactive protein level
,D. Pulsus paradoxus
- answer-D. Pulsus paradoxus
Feedback
Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a drop of 10 mmHg or more in systolic blood
pressure during inspiration. Pulsus paradoxus is an indicator of cardiac tamponade,
a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. Other listed signs and symptoms
may be exhibited by a client with pericarditis with or without cardiac tamponade.
A 26-year-old female patient is admitted with a diagnosis of hyperglycemic
hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). The patient's serum glucose level 30 minutes ago
was 748 mg/dL. Which of the following sets of laboratory results could the nurse
anticipate?
A. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L, serum creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
B. Elevated serum osmolarity, BUN 6 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L, decreased serum osmolarity
D. Serum potassium 5.9 mEq/L, serum sodium 129 mEq/L
- answer-D. Serum potassium 5.9 mEq/L, serum sodium 129 mEq/L
Feedback
Most patients with HHNK exhibit elevated serum potassium levels and decreased
serum sodium levels due to the significant fluid shifts that occur with this
condition. If a patient presents with a normal or low level of serum potassium,
potassium replacement should accompany standard interventions to correct
HHNK, as these interventions lower serum potassium and may precipitate cardiac
complications if the electrolyte is not replaced.
A 28-year-old male patient from Thailand is admitted to the telemetry unit with a
history of syncope. His electrocardiogram shows a right bundle branch block
(RBBB) with ongoing ST elevation in leads V1 through V3, but the patient does
not report chest pain or shortness of breath. The nurse anticipates that this patient
may be diagnosed with which of the following genetic cardiac diseases?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Brugada syndrome
C. Velocardiofacial syndrome
D. Holt-Oram syndrome
- answer-Brugada syndrome
Feedback
Brugada syndrome is characterized by structural right ventricular pathology that
exhibits as asymptomatic ST elevation in leads V1-3 present all the time, or in
response to the administration of certain medications (e.g., sodium channel
blockers). The genetic defect alters sodium ion conduction. Other ECG
, abnormalities include the appearance of a right bundle branch block and long PR
intervals. Fever or elevation in temperature from exercise will exacerbate the ST
elevation.
A 32-year-old female patient admitted to a telemetry floor has been waiting three
months for a kidney transplant. Her husband angrily tells the nurse, "This is
ridiculous! I feel so hopeless!" Which of the following thought patterns should
guide the nurse's response?
A. Frustration is a normal part of the grieving process and does not usually require
nursing intervention.
B. Expressions of hopelessness may be harmful to the patient, and should be made
out of the hearing of the patient.
C. Maintaining the integrity of the family system is crucial in the transplant
process.
D. Discussion of negative emotions may disrupt the process of resolution and
should be avoided.
- answer-C. Maintaining the integrity of the family system is crucial in the
transplant process.
Feedback
Caring practices involves engaging family caregivers in order to create supportive
and therapeutic environments for comfort and healing. Discussing this husband's
feelings more in depth, perhaps even in the presence of the patient, will promote
optimal family support during the transplant process.
A 34-year-old client is admitted for complications related to acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). In an effort to prevent and control further
infections in this client, the nurse should:
- answer-Reduce the client's exposure to raw vegetables
Feedback
Raw vegetables may harbor living microbes capable of causing unusual infections
in a client with AIDS.
A 42-year-old male with Marfan syndrome and complaint of dizziness is admitted
to the telemetry unit for monitoring. Which of the following accompanying
symptoms may indicate the need for immediate surgical attention?
A. Cough with vocal hoarseness
B. Limited rotation of the left shoulder
C.Headache that resolved after breakfast, but has returned
D. Sudden stabbing pain in the right elbow
- answer-A. Cough with vocal hoarseness
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS!!
A 17-year-old male client is recovering from idiopathic infective endocarditis. The
nurse should include which of the following teaching points in the discharge care
plan for this client?
A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures
B. Drinking no more than 1 liter of fluid per day
C. Strictly avoiding caffeine or other stimulants
D. Encouraging a healthy low-fat diet that includes at least 2 grams of sodium
intake per day
- answer-A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures
Feedback
Client with a history of infective endocarditis should take prophylactic antibiotics
before dental procedures and some surgical procedures.
A 18-year-old male patient is receiving a series of albuterol treatments via
oxygenated nebulizer to treat an acute severe asthma attack. The BEST way to
evaluate the effectiveness of these treatments is to:
A. Monitor for absence of auscultated wheezing
B. Ask the patient if his breathing feels easier
C. Compare the patient's current peak flow reading with his baseline readings
D. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading of >90%
- answer-C. Compare the patient's current peak flow reading with his baseline
readings
Feedback
Comparing peak flow readings to baseline is a cost-effective, efficient, objective
method to determine effectiveness of asthma treatments. Absence of wheezing may
indicate further airflow restriction, so it is not a definitive method of determining
effectiveness of treatments.
A 19-year-old male patient admitted with fever, malaise, and headache exhibits
positive Brudzinski's and Kernig's signs. These signs indicate:
- answer-Central nervous system (CNS) infection
,Feedback
Kernig's sign is the inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed 90 degrees.
Brudzinski's sign is the flexion of the hips and knees that occurs when the neck is
flexed. Both of these signs, when positive, indicate meningitis.
A 22-year-old male patient is admitted for observation following a linear temporal
skull fracture from a skiing accident. Upon admission at 2 pm, the patient was alert
and oriented, and reports that he "passed out for a second" immediately after his
accident. At 4 pm, the nurse notes that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is
8. The nurse should:
A. Continue to monitor for changes
B. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
C. Prepare the patient for burr hole placement with clot evacuation
D. Prepare to administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) to reverse occlusive
stroke
- answer-C. Prepare the patient for burr hole placement with clot evacuation
Feedback
This patient is exhibiting classic signs and symptoms of an epidural hematoma.
Surgical intervention to remove the hematoma and relieve pressure on the brain
should be performed as soon as possible.
A 24-year-old male patient sustained blunt chest trauma during an automobile
crash, and is admitted to the telemetry unit for monitoring. All of the following
assessment details may indicate the development of a hemothorax EXCEPT:
- answer-Widening pulse pressure
Feedback
Signs of a hemothorax may include hypotension, tachycardia, low oxygen
saturations, elevated carbon dioxide levels (hypercapnia), and tracheal deviation to
the unaffected side. Subcutaneous emphysema may also be present (even in the
case of hemothorax) if the injury to the lung allows air to seep out of the chest
cavity. Pulse pressure narrows because of the compression of the heart that occurs
with both hemothoraces and pneumothoraces.
A 25-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse
should prepare to assist with a pericardiocentesis when the client exhibits which of
the following signs or symptoms?
A. Pericardial friction rub
B. Sharp chest pain over the sternal area
C. Elevated blood C-reactive protein level
,D. Pulsus paradoxus
- answer-D. Pulsus paradoxus
Feedback
Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a drop of 10 mmHg or more in systolic blood
pressure during inspiration. Pulsus paradoxus is an indicator of cardiac tamponade,
a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. Other listed signs and symptoms
may be exhibited by a client with pericarditis with or without cardiac tamponade.
A 26-year-old female patient is admitted with a diagnosis of hyperglycemic
hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). The patient's serum glucose level 30 minutes ago
was 748 mg/dL. Which of the following sets of laboratory results could the nurse
anticipate?
A. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L, serum creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
B. Elevated serum osmolarity, BUN 6 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L, decreased serum osmolarity
D. Serum potassium 5.9 mEq/L, serum sodium 129 mEq/L
- answer-D. Serum potassium 5.9 mEq/L, serum sodium 129 mEq/L
Feedback
Most patients with HHNK exhibit elevated serum potassium levels and decreased
serum sodium levels due to the significant fluid shifts that occur with this
condition. If a patient presents with a normal or low level of serum potassium,
potassium replacement should accompany standard interventions to correct
HHNK, as these interventions lower serum potassium and may precipitate cardiac
complications if the electrolyte is not replaced.
A 28-year-old male patient from Thailand is admitted to the telemetry unit with a
history of syncope. His electrocardiogram shows a right bundle branch block
(RBBB) with ongoing ST elevation in leads V1 through V3, but the patient does
not report chest pain or shortness of breath. The nurse anticipates that this patient
may be diagnosed with which of the following genetic cardiac diseases?
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Brugada syndrome
C. Velocardiofacial syndrome
D. Holt-Oram syndrome
- answer-Brugada syndrome
Feedback
Brugada syndrome is characterized by structural right ventricular pathology that
exhibits as asymptomatic ST elevation in leads V1-3 present all the time, or in
response to the administration of certain medications (e.g., sodium channel
blockers). The genetic defect alters sodium ion conduction. Other ECG
, abnormalities include the appearance of a right bundle branch block and long PR
intervals. Fever or elevation in temperature from exercise will exacerbate the ST
elevation.
A 32-year-old female patient admitted to a telemetry floor has been waiting three
months for a kidney transplant. Her husband angrily tells the nurse, "This is
ridiculous! I feel so hopeless!" Which of the following thought patterns should
guide the nurse's response?
A. Frustration is a normal part of the grieving process and does not usually require
nursing intervention.
B. Expressions of hopelessness may be harmful to the patient, and should be made
out of the hearing of the patient.
C. Maintaining the integrity of the family system is crucial in the transplant
process.
D. Discussion of negative emotions may disrupt the process of resolution and
should be avoided.
- answer-C. Maintaining the integrity of the family system is crucial in the
transplant process.
Feedback
Caring practices involves engaging family caregivers in order to create supportive
and therapeutic environments for comfort and healing. Discussing this husband's
feelings more in depth, perhaps even in the presence of the patient, will promote
optimal family support during the transplant process.
A 34-year-old client is admitted for complications related to acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). In an effort to prevent and control further
infections in this client, the nurse should:
- answer-Reduce the client's exposure to raw vegetables
Feedback
Raw vegetables may harbor living microbes capable of causing unusual infections
in a client with AIDS.
A 42-year-old male with Marfan syndrome and complaint of dizziness is admitted
to the telemetry unit for monitoring. Which of the following accompanying
symptoms may indicate the need for immediate surgical attention?
A. Cough with vocal hoarseness
B. Limited rotation of the left shoulder
C.Headache that resolved after breakfast, but has returned
D. Sudden stabbing pain in the right elbow
- answer-A. Cough with vocal hoarseness
