NURS 5432 FAMILY I FINAL EXAM (UTA) NEWEST 2026
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| NURS5432 MODULES 7-10
FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH 400 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
Q1. What age is recommended for elderly patients to receive
the Prevnar 13 (PCV13) vaccination?
A. Age 50 and older
B. Age 55 and older
C. Age 65 and older
D. Age 70 and older
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CDC recommends PCV13 (Prevnar 13) for all
adults aged 65 years and older . This pneumococcal conjugate
vaccine provides protection against 13 strains of pneumococcal
bacteria. Shared clinical decision-making is recommended for
adults 65+ without immunocompromising conditions .
1
,Q2. How many doses are in the Shingrix (herpes zoster)
vaccine series, and how many months apart should they be
given?
A. 1 dose, single administration
B. 2 doses, 2-6 months apart
C. 3 doses, 1 month apart
D. 2 doses, 12 months apart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Shingrix vaccine is administered as a 2-dose
series, with the second dose given 2 to 6 months after the first . It
is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older and is more
than 90% effective in preventing shingles and postherpetic
neuralgia .
Q3. A 78-year-old patient presents with insidious memory
loss over 2 years, difficulty managing finances, and getting
lost in familiar neighborhoods. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Delirium
B. Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease
2
,C. Vascular dementia
D. Depression with pseudodementia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gradual onset, progressive memory loss, executive
dysfunction (finances), and spatial disorientation are
characteristic of Alzheimer's disease . The insidious onset and
slow progression distinguish Alzheimer's from vascular dementia
(stepwise) and delirium (acute) .
Q4. What labs should be completed to rule out reversible
causes of cognitive impairment when evaluating for
Alzheimer's disease?
A. CBC, BMP, LFTs, and UA
B. CBC, metabolic panel, vitamin B12 and folate, RPR, and TSH
C. Lipid panel, HbA1c, and CRP
D. Only TSH and vitamin B12
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standard laboratory workup to rule out reversible
causes of cognitive impairment includes CBC, comprehensive
metabolic panel, vitamin B12 and folate levels, RPR (syphilis),
3
, and TSH (thyroid function) . These tests identify potentially
reversible contributors to cognitive decline .
Q5. Why would an RPR test be completed as part of a
dementia workup?
A. To rule out vitamin deficiency
B. To rule out syphilis as a reversible cause of dementia
C. To assess for thyroid dysfunction
D. To evaluate kidney function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RPR test helps rule out neurosyphilis as a reversible
cause of cognitive impairment . Untreated syphilis can cause
neurological deterioration that may be mistaken for other forms
of dementia .
Q6. A patient with rapid progression of dementia symptoms
before age 60 should be:
A. Monitored in primary care with annual cognitive testing
B. Referred to neurology for further evaluation
4
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK| NURS5432 MODULES 7-10
FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH 400 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/
ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
Q1. What age is recommended for elderly patients to receive
the Prevnar 13 (PCV13) vaccination?
A. Age 50 and older
B. Age 55 and older
C. Age 65 and older
D. Age 70 and older
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CDC recommends PCV13 (Prevnar 13) for all
adults aged 65 years and older . This pneumococcal conjugate
vaccine provides protection against 13 strains of pneumococcal
bacteria. Shared clinical decision-making is recommended for
adults 65+ without immunocompromising conditions .
1
,Q2. How many doses are in the Shingrix (herpes zoster)
vaccine series, and how many months apart should they be
given?
A. 1 dose, single administration
B. 2 doses, 2-6 months apart
C. 3 doses, 1 month apart
D. 2 doses, 12 months apart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Shingrix vaccine is administered as a 2-dose
series, with the second dose given 2 to 6 months after the first . It
is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older and is more
than 90% effective in preventing shingles and postherpetic
neuralgia .
Q3. A 78-year-old patient presents with insidious memory
loss over 2 years, difficulty managing finances, and getting
lost in familiar neighborhoods. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Delirium
B. Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer's Disease
2
,C. Vascular dementia
D. Depression with pseudodementia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gradual onset, progressive memory loss, executive
dysfunction (finances), and spatial disorientation are
characteristic of Alzheimer's disease . The insidious onset and
slow progression distinguish Alzheimer's from vascular dementia
(stepwise) and delirium (acute) .
Q4. What labs should be completed to rule out reversible
causes of cognitive impairment when evaluating for
Alzheimer's disease?
A. CBC, BMP, LFTs, and UA
B. CBC, metabolic panel, vitamin B12 and folate, RPR, and TSH
C. Lipid panel, HbA1c, and CRP
D. Only TSH and vitamin B12
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standard laboratory workup to rule out reversible
causes of cognitive impairment includes CBC, comprehensive
metabolic panel, vitamin B12 and folate levels, RPR (syphilis),
3
, and TSH (thyroid function) . These tests identify potentially
reversible contributors to cognitive decline .
Q5. Why would an RPR test be completed as part of a
dementia workup?
A. To rule out vitamin deficiency
B. To rule out syphilis as a reversible cause of dementia
C. To assess for thyroid dysfunction
D. To evaluate kidney function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RPR test helps rule out neurosyphilis as a reversible
cause of cognitive impairment . Untreated syphilis can cause
neurological deterioration that may be mistaken for other forms
of dementia .
Q6. A patient with rapid progression of dementia symptoms
before age 60 should be:
A. Monitored in primary care with annual cognitive testing
B. Referred to neurology for further evaluation
4
