TI LEADERSHIP CMS PROCTORED
A
EXAM 2023-2024 | New Questions &
100% Correct Verified Answers | RN
Leadership Management Test | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
1 (Delegation – LPN scope): A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is making assignments
Q
for the shift. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to an LPN?
A. Administering an IV push medication of furosemide to a patient with new-onset heart failure
B. Performing the initial head-to-toe assessment on a newly admitted patient with pneumonia
C. Administering an oral dose of metoprolol to a stable patient with hypertension
D. Developing the plan of care for a patient being discharged tomorrow with a new ostomy
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: LPNs can administer oral,
subcutaneous, and IM medications to stable patients but cannot perform initial assessments, IV
push medications, or develop comprehensive care plans. Option A is incorrect because IV push
medications are outside LPN scope; Option B is incorrect because initial assessments must be
performed by the RN; Option D is incorrect because care planning and discharge teaching are
RN responsibilities. Test-taking pearl: Remember "LPN = STABLE + ORAL/IM/SUBQ" – if the
patient is unstable or the task requires judgment/critical thinking, keep it with the RN.
Q2 (Delegation – Five Rights): A nurse is delegating a task to a UAP. According to the five rights
of delegation, which element must the nurse verify FIRST before delegating?
A. The right task
B. The right circumstance
C. The right person
D. The right supervision
[CORRECT] A
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: The five rights of delegation are right
task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, and right
supervision/evaluation. The nurse must first determine if the task is delegable before assessing
the other rights. Option B is second; Option C is third; Option D is fifth. Test-taking pearl: Use
the mnemonic "TCPCS" – Task, Circumstance, Person, Communication, Supervision – in that
exact order.
, 3 (Prioritization – ABCs): A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should the nurse
Q
see FIRST?
A. A patient with COPD who is requesting a breathing treatment that is 30 minutes overdue
B. A patient who had a total knee replacement 2 days ago and is reporting pain of 6/10
C. A patient with a new tracheostomy who has thick, copious secretions and an SpO2 of 88%
D. A patient with stable CHF who needs discharge teaching before going home this afternoon
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation) take absolute priority. A patient with a compromised airway (thick secretions) and
hypoxemia (SpO2 88%) is at immediate risk for respiratory arrest. Option A is important but the
patient is stable and breathing; Option B is expected post-op pain; Option D is non-urgent and
can be delegated or delayed. Test-taking pearl: When you see "trach + secretions + low O2,"
always select it first – airway always wins.
Q4 (Prioritization – Maslow): Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which patient need takes
priority?
A. A patient who is anxious about an upcoming cardiac catheterization
B. A patient who is NPO and requesting ice chips 4 hours before surgery
C. A patient who is bleeding from a surgical incision with a dressing saturated in 15 minutes
D. A patient who wants to discuss advance directives before discharge
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: Maslow's hierarchy prioritizes
physiological needs (oxygen, circulation, safety) over psychological or self-actualization needs.
Active bleeding threatens circulation and is a physiological need. Option A is a
safety/psychological need; Option B is a comfort need (NPO status takes priority); Option D is a
self-actualization need. Test-taking pearl: "Physiological first, then safety, then love/belonging,
then esteem, then self-actualization" – bleeding always trumps anxiety.
Q5 (Legal – Informed Consent): Which statement about informed consent is CORRECT?
A. The nurse witness to informed consent is responsible for explaining the risks and benefits of
the procedure
B. Informed consent can be obtained from a patient who has received sedation within the last 2
hours
C. The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness that the patient voluntarily signed the form
D. A 16-year-old patient who is married can never give informed consent for their own care
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues: The nurse witness verifies the
signature and voluntariness, not the explanation of risks/benefits (that's the provider's role).
Option A is incorrect because explaining risks is the physician/APRN responsibility; Option B is
incorrect because consent requires the patient to be alert and not under the influence of
sedating medications; Option D is incorrect because emancipated minors (including married
minors) can provide consent. Test-taking pearl: "Nurse = WITNESS, not EXPLAINER" – never
explain risks/benefits unless you're the provider performing the procedure.
Q6 (Legal – HIPAA): A nurse receives a phone call from a patient's adult daughter asking about
her mother's condition. The mother has not listed the daughter as a person who can receive
information. Which is the nurse's BEST response?
, . "I can give you general information, but I cannot share specific details about her condition"
A
B. "I'm sorry, but I cannot confirm or deny that your mother is a patient here without her
permission"
C. "I can tell you she is stable, but you'll need to speak with her directly for more information"
D. "Let me check with my supervisor to see if we can release some information to you"
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues (HIPAA): The Privacy Rule prohibits
confirming a patient's presence at the facility without authorization. This is the minimum
necessary standard. Option A violates HIPAA by providing any health information; Option C also
provides protected health information (stability status); Option D suggests the supervisor can
override HIPAA, which is incorrect. Test-taking pearl: "No name, no status, no condition" – if not
authorized, say absolutely nothing about the patient's presence or condition.
Q7 (Legal – Mandatory Reporting): A nurse suspects a 3-year-old patient has been physically
abused by a parent. Which action must the nurse take?
A. Confront the parent about the suspected abuse before reporting
B. Report the suspected abuse to child protective services immediately
C. Wait for the physician to document the suspicion before making a report
D. Document the suspicion in the chart and monitor the child for further evidence
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues: Nurses are mandated reporters and
must report suspected child abuse immediately to the appropriate authorities (child protective
services). Waiting for confirmation, confronting the abuser, or delaying reporting violates
mandatory reporting laws. Option A could endanger the child; Option C delays mandatory
reporting; Option D is insufficient – reporting is required, not optional. Test-taking pearl:
"Suspected = Reported" – you don't need proof, only reasonable suspicion. Report immediately
and document that you reported.
Q8 (Legal – Restraints): A physician orders wrist restraints for an agitated patient who keeps
pulling at their IV line. Which action by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
A. Apply the restraints and obtain a new order every 24 hours
B. Apply the restraints and release them every 2 hours for range of motion
C. Apply the restraints only after all less restrictive alternatives have been attempted and
documented
D. Apply the restraints and check the patient every 4 hours for circulation
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues (Restraints): Restraints are a last
resort and require documentation that less restrictive measures were attempted first. Option A is
incorrect because orders must be renewed more frequently (every 24 hours for
medical/surgical, every 1-4 hours for behavioral); Option B has the right interval but misses the
prerequisite of trying alternatives; Option D is incorrect because circulation checks must occur
every 2 hours, not 4. Test-taking pearl: "Least restrictive first, then restraints, then Q2H checks,
then renew orders" – never jump to restraints without trying alternatives.
Q9 (Delegation – UAP scope): Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP?
A. Feeding a patient who is at high risk for aspiration
B. Ambulating a stable patient who had a total hip replacement 2 days ago
, . Obtaining vital signs on a patient who is 1 hour post-op from cardiac surgery
C
D. Performing a sterile dressing change on a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: UAPs can perform stable, routine
tasks that do not require nursing judgment. Ambulating a stable post-op patient is appropriate.
Option A requires assessment of swallowing and aspiration risk (RN task); Option C requires
assessment of post-op stability (RN task – first set of vitals post-op should be by RN); Option D
requires sterile technique and wound assessment (RN or LPN with specific training). Test-taking
pearl: "UAP = ROUTINE + STABLE + NON-STERILE + NO JUDGMENT" – if it requires
assessment, sterile technique, or unstable patient, keep it with licensed staff.
Q10 (Prioritization – Acute vs. Chronic): A nurse has four patients. Which patient should be
seen FIRST?
A. A patient with chronic osteoarthritis requesting pain medication
B. A patient with newly diagnosed diabetes who needs blood glucose monitoring before lunch
C. A patient with acute asthma exacerbation who is wheezing and using accessory muscles
D. A patient with stable hypertension who needs a daily antihypertensive medication
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: Acute conditions take priority over
chronic/stable conditions. An acute asthma exacerbation with respiratory distress is
life-threatening. Option A is a chronic condition with expected pain; Option B is a routine
monitoring task; Option D is a routine medication administration. Test-taking pearl: "Acute beats
chronic, new beats old, unstable beats stable" – when in doubt, the patient showing signs of
distress goes first.
Q11 (Conflict Resolution): Two nurses on the unit are arguing loudly at the nurses' station about
patient assignments. The charge nurse approaches. Which response demonstrates the MOST
effective conflict resolution strategy?
A. "Both of you need to calm down and take this to the break room immediately"
B. "I can see you're both upset. Let's move to a private area and discuss the concerns one at a
time"
C. "I'll handle the assignments myself. Both of you need to focus on your patients"
D. "This is unprofessional. I'm writing both of you up for disruptive behavior"
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 5 – Conflict Resolution: Effective conflict resolution
involves addressing the issue privately, acknowledging emotions, and facilitating collaborative
problem-solving. Option A dismisses the conflict without resolution; Option C avoids addressing
the underlying issue and may breed resentment; Option D escalates the situation and uses
punitive measures rather than resolution. Test-taking pearl: "Collaborative > Competing >
Avoiding > Accommodating > Compromising" – for staff conflicts, always aim for collaborative
resolution in a private setting.
Q12 (Communication – SBAR): A nurse is calling a physician about a change in a patient's
condition. Using SBAR communication, which component should the nurse include LAST?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
A
EXAM 2023-2024 | New Questions &
100% Correct Verified Answers | RN
Leadership Management Test | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
1 (Delegation – LPN scope): A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is making assignments
Q
for the shift. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to an LPN?
A. Administering an IV push medication of furosemide to a patient with new-onset heart failure
B. Performing the initial head-to-toe assessment on a newly admitted patient with pneumonia
C. Administering an oral dose of metoprolol to a stable patient with hypertension
D. Developing the plan of care for a patient being discharged tomorrow with a new ostomy
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: LPNs can administer oral,
subcutaneous, and IM medications to stable patients but cannot perform initial assessments, IV
push medications, or develop comprehensive care plans. Option A is incorrect because IV push
medications are outside LPN scope; Option B is incorrect because initial assessments must be
performed by the RN; Option D is incorrect because care planning and discharge teaching are
RN responsibilities. Test-taking pearl: Remember "LPN = STABLE + ORAL/IM/SUBQ" – if the
patient is unstable or the task requires judgment/critical thinking, keep it with the RN.
Q2 (Delegation – Five Rights): A nurse is delegating a task to a UAP. According to the five rights
of delegation, which element must the nurse verify FIRST before delegating?
A. The right task
B. The right circumstance
C. The right person
D. The right supervision
[CORRECT] A
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: The five rights of delegation are right
task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, and right
supervision/evaluation. The nurse must first determine if the task is delegable before assessing
the other rights. Option B is second; Option C is third; Option D is fifth. Test-taking pearl: Use
the mnemonic "TCPCS" – Task, Circumstance, Person, Communication, Supervision – in that
exact order.
, 3 (Prioritization – ABCs): A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should the nurse
Q
see FIRST?
A. A patient with COPD who is requesting a breathing treatment that is 30 minutes overdue
B. A patient who had a total knee replacement 2 days ago and is reporting pain of 6/10
C. A patient with a new tracheostomy who has thick, copious secretions and an SpO2 of 88%
D. A patient with stable CHF who needs discharge teaching before going home this afternoon
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation) take absolute priority. A patient with a compromised airway (thick secretions) and
hypoxemia (SpO2 88%) is at immediate risk for respiratory arrest. Option A is important but the
patient is stable and breathing; Option B is expected post-op pain; Option D is non-urgent and
can be delegated or delayed. Test-taking pearl: When you see "trach + secretions + low O2,"
always select it first – airway always wins.
Q4 (Prioritization – Maslow): Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which patient need takes
priority?
A. A patient who is anxious about an upcoming cardiac catheterization
B. A patient who is NPO and requesting ice chips 4 hours before surgery
C. A patient who is bleeding from a surgical incision with a dressing saturated in 15 minutes
D. A patient who wants to discuss advance directives before discharge
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: Maslow's hierarchy prioritizes
physiological needs (oxygen, circulation, safety) over psychological or self-actualization needs.
Active bleeding threatens circulation and is a physiological need. Option A is a
safety/psychological need; Option B is a comfort need (NPO status takes priority); Option D is a
self-actualization need. Test-taking pearl: "Physiological first, then safety, then love/belonging,
then esteem, then self-actualization" – bleeding always trumps anxiety.
Q5 (Legal – Informed Consent): Which statement about informed consent is CORRECT?
A. The nurse witness to informed consent is responsible for explaining the risks and benefits of
the procedure
B. Informed consent can be obtained from a patient who has received sedation within the last 2
hours
C. The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness that the patient voluntarily signed the form
D. A 16-year-old patient who is married can never give informed consent for their own care
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues: The nurse witness verifies the
signature and voluntariness, not the explanation of risks/benefits (that's the provider's role).
Option A is incorrect because explaining risks is the physician/APRN responsibility; Option B is
incorrect because consent requires the patient to be alert and not under the influence of
sedating medications; Option D is incorrect because emancipated minors (including married
minors) can provide consent. Test-taking pearl: "Nurse = WITNESS, not EXPLAINER" – never
explain risks/benefits unless you're the provider performing the procedure.
Q6 (Legal – HIPAA): A nurse receives a phone call from a patient's adult daughter asking about
her mother's condition. The mother has not listed the daughter as a person who can receive
information. Which is the nurse's BEST response?
, . "I can give you general information, but I cannot share specific details about her condition"
A
B. "I'm sorry, but I cannot confirm or deny that your mother is a patient here without her
permission"
C. "I can tell you she is stable, but you'll need to speak with her directly for more information"
D. "Let me check with my supervisor to see if we can release some information to you"
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues (HIPAA): The Privacy Rule prohibits
confirming a patient's presence at the facility without authorization. This is the minimum
necessary standard. Option A violates HIPAA by providing any health information; Option C also
provides protected health information (stability status); Option D suggests the supervisor can
override HIPAA, which is incorrect. Test-taking pearl: "No name, no status, no condition" – if not
authorized, say absolutely nothing about the patient's presence or condition.
Q7 (Legal – Mandatory Reporting): A nurse suspects a 3-year-old patient has been physically
abused by a parent. Which action must the nurse take?
A. Confront the parent about the suspected abuse before reporting
B. Report the suspected abuse to child protective services immediately
C. Wait for the physician to document the suspicion before making a report
D. Document the suspicion in the chart and monitor the child for further evidence
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues: Nurses are mandated reporters and
must report suspected child abuse immediately to the appropriate authorities (child protective
services). Waiting for confirmation, confronting the abuser, or delaying reporting violates
mandatory reporting laws. Option A could endanger the child; Option C delays mandatory
reporting; Option D is insufficient – reporting is required, not optional. Test-taking pearl:
"Suspected = Reported" – you don't need proof, only reasonable suspicion. Report immediately
and document that you reported.
Q8 (Legal – Restraints): A physician orders wrist restraints for an agitated patient who keeps
pulling at their IV line. Which action by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
A. Apply the restraints and obtain a new order every 24 hours
B. Apply the restraints and release them every 2 hours for range of motion
C. Apply the restraints only after all less restrictive alternatives have been attempted and
documented
D. Apply the restraints and check the patient every 4 hours for circulation
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 4 – Legal Issues (Restraints): Restraints are a last
resort and require documentation that less restrictive measures were attempted first. Option A is
incorrect because orders must be renewed more frequently (every 24 hours for
medical/surgical, every 1-4 hours for behavioral); Option B has the right interval but misses the
prerequisite of trying alternatives; Option D is incorrect because circulation checks must occur
every 2 hours, not 4. Test-taking pearl: "Least restrictive first, then restraints, then Q2H checks,
then renew orders" – never jump to restraints without trying alternatives.
Q9 (Delegation – UAP scope): Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP?
A. Feeding a patient who is at high risk for aspiration
B. Ambulating a stable patient who had a total hip replacement 2 days ago
, . Obtaining vital signs on a patient who is 1 hour post-op from cardiac surgery
C
D. Performing a sterile dressing change on a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 2 – Delegation: UAPs can perform stable, routine
tasks that do not require nursing judgment. Ambulating a stable post-op patient is appropriate.
Option A requires assessment of swallowing and aspiration risk (RN task); Option C requires
assessment of post-op stability (RN task – first set of vitals post-op should be by RN); Option D
requires sterile technique and wound assessment (RN or LPN with specific training). Test-taking
pearl: "UAP = ROUTINE + STABLE + NON-STERILE + NO JUDGMENT" – if it requires
assessment, sterile technique, or unstable patient, keep it with licensed staff.
Q10 (Prioritization – Acute vs. Chronic): A nurse has four patients. Which patient should be
seen FIRST?
A. A patient with chronic osteoarthritis requesting pain medication
B. A patient with newly diagnosed diabetes who needs blood glucose monitoring before lunch
C. A patient with acute asthma exacerbation who is wheezing and using accessory muscles
D. A patient with stable hypertension who needs a daily antihypertensive medication
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 3 – Prioritization: Acute conditions take priority over
chronic/stable conditions. An acute asthma exacerbation with respiratory distress is
life-threatening. Option A is a chronic condition with expected pain; Option B is a routine
monitoring task; Option D is a routine medication administration. Test-taking pearl: "Acute beats
chronic, new beats old, unstable beats stable" – when in doubt, the patient showing signs of
distress goes first.
Q11 (Conflict Resolution): Two nurses on the unit are arguing loudly at the nurses' station about
patient assignments. The charge nurse approaches. Which response demonstrates the MOST
effective conflict resolution strategy?
A. "Both of you need to calm down and take this to the break room immediately"
B. "I can see you're both upset. Let's move to a private area and discuss the concerns one at a
time"
C. "I'll handle the assignments myself. Both of you need to focus on your patients"
D. "This is unprofessional. I'm writing both of you up for disruptive behavior"
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: ATI Leadership 2023, Chapter 5 – Conflict Resolution: Effective conflict resolution
involves addressing the issue privately, acknowledging emotions, and facilitating collaborative
problem-solving. Option A dismisses the conflict without resolution; Option C avoids addressing
the underlying issue and may breed resentment; Option D escalates the situation and uses
punitive measures rather than resolution. Test-taking pearl: "Collaborative > Competing >
Avoiding > Accommodating > Compromising" – for staff conflicts, always aim for collaborative
resolution in a private setting.
Q12 (Communication – SBAR): A nurse is calling a physician about a change in a patient's
condition. Using SBAR communication, which component should the nurse include LAST?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
