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NR548/ NR 548 Final exam (2026/2027 Update) Psychiatric Assessment for the PMHNP |Qs & As- Chamberlain.

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NR548/ NR 548 Final exam (2026/2027 Update) Psychiatric Assessment for the PMHNP |Qs & As- Chamberlain. Q. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) ANSWER provides a legal framework for handling client information -HIPAA rules help protect the privacy of the client's identifiable health information while facilitating communication among providers and other entities • ensure information is available for treatment and other purposes such as insurance benefits -health professionals may be held legally liable by state and federal law for breaching confidentiality Q. Release of Information ANSWER -HIPAA guides the PMHNP in making decisions about when to share information based on their professional judgment to prevent harm • may be necessary for providers to share mental and behavioral health information to enhance treatment or ensure the health and safety of the client and others -PMHNPs are mandatory reporters in cases of suspected child abuse Q. Duty to Warn ANSWER exception to requirements for confidentiality -Most states have laws that allow mental health professionals to share information about clients who may become violent -several states, it is even mandatory for providers to report when clients may pose a danger to themselves or others Q. John is a 36-year-old with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. He lives with his mother. His symptoms are ANSWER currently well managed by medications; however, he sometimes forgets to take them. At the visit with the PMHNP, John asks the PMHNP to go over his medication regimen with his mother. Is this allowed under HIPAA? Yes Rationale: In situations where the client is given the opportunity and does not object, HIPAA allows the provider to share or discuss the client's mental health information with family members or other persons involved in the client's care or payment for care Q. John's sister calls the PMHNP to discuss her concerns that John is under a lot of stress and may be showing signs of psychosis. John has not permitted the PMHNP to speak with his sister as they are estranged, and John has asked the PMHNP not to share information. Is it acceptable for the PMHNP to share information about John's status with his sister? ANSWER No Rationale: The HIPAA Privacy Rule permits a health care provider to disclose information to the family members of an adult client who has the capacity and indicates that he or she does not want the disclosure made, only to the extent that the provider perceives a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of the client or others and the family members are in a position to lessen the threat. Otherwise, under HIPAA, the provider must respect the wishes of the adult client who objects to the disclosure. Q. Is it permissible for the PMHNP to listen to the sister's concerns without sharing information? ANSWER Yes Rationale: HIPAA in no way prevents health care providers from listening to family members or other caregivers who may have concerns about the health. Q. John's mother recently had a stroke and is in the neuro intensive care unit (ICU). With his mother out of the home, John has forgotten to take his medications for over a week. He begins to experience hallucinations and paranoia. At his appointment with the PMHNP, he threatens to harm his sister. To whom should the PMHNP disclose this information (select all that apply): ANSWER -John's sister -John's mother's nurse in the neuro ICU -Law enforcement near the sister's home -A social worker from the Board of Developmental Disabilities who has been working with the family -John's sister -Law enforcement near the sister's home -A social worker from the Board of Developmental Disabilities who has been working with the family Rationale: The Privacy Rule permits a health care provider to disclose necessary information about a client to law enforcement, family members of the client, or other persons when the provider believes the client presents a serious and imminent threat to self or others. Specifically, when a health care provider believes in good faith that such a warning is necessary to prevent or lessen a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of the client or others, the Privacy Rule allows the provider, consistent with applicable law and standards of ethical conduct, to alert those persons whom the provider believes are reasonably able to prevent or lessen the threat. Q. Informed Consent ANSWER for care and treatment is a fundamental ethical and legal principle -respects the client's autonomy in medical decision-making -Clients have the right to receive information and ask questions about recommended treatments so they can make decisions about their care that are consistent with their beliefs, values, and goals of treatment -Clients have the right to knowledge about their treatment under "reasonable practitioner" or "reasonable person" standards under U. S. law. -may change over time and in different circumstances • is an ongoing process Q. Steps to Obtaining Informed Consent ANSWER -Assess client ability to understand medical information & tx options & to make a voluntary decision -Present relevant information with accuracy and sensitivity, Should include information about: • Diagnosis • Nature and purpose of treatment options • Benefits, risks, and burdens of all treatment options, including forgoing treatment -Document informed consent conversation in the medical record, including all consent forms Q. Informed Consent: Documentation ANSWER Documentation of the discussion to obtain informed consent should include: -treatment plans with risks and benefits identified -reasonable alternatives with risks and benefits identified -assessment of client understanding of the discussion *must demonstrate that the client participated in the decision-making process and that the client was not coerced into treatment Q. Exceptions to Informed Consent: ANSWER -client incapacitation -life-threatening emergencies -voluntary waived consent -client unable to make decisions and has no designated decision-maker -involuntary treatment Q. A client who is alert and oriented declines the PMHNP's treatment recommendation for an antipsychotic in a non-emergent situation: ANSWER Informed consent required Exception to informed consent Informed consent required Rationale: The client has the capacity to consent and the situation is not emergent. The ethic of autonomy provides for the client to refuse treatment options. Q. An agitated, hallucinating client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia and no designated decision-maker threatens to shoot his neighbors. The client acts out violently towards the security guard in the emergency department. The PMHNP orders haloperidol and lorazepam for the client. ANSWER Informed consent required Exception to informed consent Exception to informed consent Rationale: The client does not have the capacity to provide consent. Q. A very anxious client is seeking treatment for anxiety symptoms. When the PMHNP begins to explain the treatment options, the client says she is too anxious to hear them and asks that the PMHNP select the best option. ANSWER Informed consent required Exception to informed consent Exception to informed consent Rationale: clients may choose to waive their right to informed consent. Q. A client with depression is unhappy about the performance of the anti-depressant that has been prescribed and would like to discuss alternate treatment options with the PMHNP. ANSWER Informed consent required Exception to informed consent Informed consent required Rationale: Clients have a right to information about treatment options with associated risks and benefits. ______________________, or __________________, are treated differently than other types of mental health information and receive special protections under HIPAA Psychotherapy notes, or process notes -HIPAA Privacy Rule requires that clients provide authorization, using a HIPAA-compliant authorization form, before the disclosure of the notes for any reason -Providers are not required to provide their psychotherapy notes to the client. psychotherapy notes definition "notes recorded (in any medium) by a health care provider who is a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversation during a private counseling session or a group, joint, or family counseling session and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record" Must the PMHNP release a client's medical record to a client's insurer? Yes Must the PMHNP release psychotherapy notes to the client? No Must the PMHNP release medical records to the court with a subpoena? Yes with client authorization Must the PMHNP release medical records to the client? Yes Must the PMHNP release psychotherapy notes to another provider? No Types of development the PMHNP should consider include: cognitive and psychosocial development _________________ theory regarding human needs may also inform the PMHNP's approach to psychiatric interviewing. Abraham Maslow's Piaget's cognitive stage: Sensorimotor • 0-2 years of age • cognitive abilities based on reflexes • children master object permanence and causality Cognitive Development: Piaget's cognitive stages -Sensorimotor -Preoperational -Concrete Operational -Formal Operational Piaget's cognitive stage: Preoperational • 2-7 years of age • child can use mental representations, symbolic thought, and language • thinking is egocentric Piaget's cognitive stage: Concrete Operational • 7-11 years of age • child uses logical operations when thinking and solving problems • thinking is concrete Piaget's cognitive stage: Formal Operational • 12 years and older • adolescent can use abstract reasoning in addition to logical operations • can understand theories, hypothesize, and comprehend abstract ideas such as love and justice Psychosocial Development: Erikson's developmental theory individuals go through a series of eight stages of psychosocial development from birth to death -each stage, individuals must resolve a psychosocial crisis to move to the next stage • Unsuccessful resolution could impair the development of a healthy personality and sense of self, which could negatively impact mental health and relationships Erikson's psychosocial stages -Infancy: Trust vs. Mistrust (birth-18 months) -Early Childhood: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (ages 18 months-2 to 3 years) -Preschool: Initiative vs. Guilt (ages 3-5) -School Age: Industry vs. Inferiority (ages 6-11) -Adolescence: Identity vs. Role Confusion (ages 12-18) -Young Adulthood: Intimacy vs. Isolation (ages 19-40) -Middle Adulthood: Generativity vs. Stagnation (ages 40-65) -Maturity: Integrity vs. Despair (ages 65-death) Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs motivational theory that examines people's behavior as it relates to five categories of needs -Needs arranged in a pyramid, most basic needs at the foundation: • self-actualization (top of pyramid) • esteem • love/social needs • safety • physiological (bottom of pyramid) Which theory would the psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP) most need to consider when conducting a psychiatric interview in the following situations? A 35-year-old homeless client is in the emergency department with suicidal ideations. Hierarchy of Needs Theory Psychosocial Development Theory Cognitive development Theory Hierarchy of Needs Theory Rationale: To attend to higher-level needs, a client must first meet foundational needs. A homeless client may be struggling to meet physiological and safety needs. Which theory would the PMHNP most need to consider when conducting a psychiatric interview in the following situations? A 14-year-old foster child struggling to develop trusting relationships with his foster parents. Hierarchy of Needs Theory Psychosocial Development Theory Cognitive development Theory Psychosocial Development Theory Rationale: According to Erickson's theory, a developmental crisis in infancy trust vs. mistrust. When basic trust in caregivers is not developed in early life, it can impact the creation of trusting relationships later. Which theory would the PMHNP most need to consider when conducting a psychiatric interview in the following situations? A 4-year-old is struggling to understand what she has seen on television about civil protests. Hierarchy of Needs Theory Psychosocial Development Theory Cognitive development Theory Cognitive development Theory Rationale: According to Piaget, children in early childhood do not have the cognitive ability to understand abstract concepts, such as justice. Special Considerations: Children -Legislation regarding minors and informed consent is based on state law • be familiar with the req in state of practice • Children under 17 typically cannot provide informed consent -Parents must give permission for tx in most circumstances, exceptions: • under 18 and married • serving in the military • able to provide financial independence • mother of a child (married or not) -A parent may not be allowed to access info. in the following circumstances: • info. is contained in the therapist's psychotherapy notes • parent not designated as the child's personal representative • parent voluntarily agrees that info can be kept confidential • provider has a reasonable belief that abuse or neglect exists or parent is a danger to the child • provider believes it is not in the child's best interest to treat the parent as the child's representative Interviewing children and adolescents -PMHNP may need to speak with family members separately from the child to gain additional information about the child's mental health concern -Family issues and family dynamics often play a role in the child's or adolescent's psychiatric disorder -Common topics to cover in an adolescent interview include: • interests • school and activities • drug and alcohol use • sexual activity • conduct problems In which of these situations would it be appropriate to share a child or adolescent's protected health information with a parent? A 12-year-old who has designated the parent to be the personal representative in a state allowing adolescents to consent to their treatment. Appropriate Inappropriate Appropriate Rationale: In states where consent to treat is required and the child has indicated that the parent should be the personal representative, it would be appropriate to share the information so long as the PMHNP does not suspect abuse, neglect, or that sharing would not be in the child's best interests. In which of these situations would it be appropriate to share a child or adolescent's protected health information with a parent? A 17-year-old on active duty in the Navy. Appropriate Inappropriate Inappropriate Rationale: Under most state laws, an adolescent serving in the military would be considered emancipated, therefore, the parent would not have the right to view the records without the adolescent's permission. In which of these situations would it be appropriate to share a child or adolescent's protected health information with a parent? A parent requesting to see the therapist's psychotherapy notes from sessions with a 6-year-old child. Appropriate Inappropriate Inappropriate Rationale: Parents and clients do not have a right to view a therapist's private psychotherapy notes. Special Considerations: Older Adults When conducting a psychiatric interview with an older adult, the PMHNP must consider the following: -developmental issues of older adulthood -generational perspectives and beliefs -comorbid physical illness -polypharmacy -cognitive or sensory impairments -history of physical/mental disorders Sociocultural factors that may influence the experience and expression of health and of psychological problems in later life gender race ethnicity socioeconomic status sexual orientation disability status urban/rural residence Older adults: changes that impact cognitive functioning -Sensory deficits, especially vision and hearing -Physical health -Poverty -Medications -Active use of information processing strategies -Lifestyle factors -Neurodegenerative conditions Stereotypes about Older Adults may include: Older adults have dementia Older adults have high rates of mental illness such as depression Older adults are not productive in the workplace Older adults are ill and frail Older adults are socially isolated Older adults have no interest in sex/intimacy Older adults are stubborn and inflexible Older adults are "cute" or "childlike" Closure The final phase of the psychiatric interview process Provides an opportunity to summarize impressions from the mental status exam and to discuss diagnostic conclusions and next steps. Client education during this phase. Allow five to 10 minutes for the interview closure. Closing the Interview explains the diagnosis and treatment options to the client and offers an opportunity for the client to ask questions and give input. provides education regarding recommended medications and therapies during the interview closure. discuss the need for follow-up care with the client during the closure of the interview Use the -------- minutes following the 50-minute interview to record clinical findings. ten components of a clinical encounter that should be documented including (American Psychiatric Association [APA], chief complaint• referral source• history of present illness• current treatments including medications and therapies• past medical, family, social histories• review of systems• mental status examination• diagnosis• treatment plan follow-up Two-week intervals are common when starting new medications to assess for tolerability, efficacy, and the need for dose adjustment, whereas four-week intervals (or longer) are typical for stable clients. Thoroughness The provider must provide a thorough yet succinct description of the client. Be mindful of presenting an accurate, objective account of the client encounter. Be aware of personal bias. Time Efficiency Documentation should typically take no more than 10-15 minutes. Familiarity with the documentation method and process can help save time. Readability Keep documentation to 2-3 pages maximum to allow for easy review. Identifying Data includes demographic descriptors of the client and the context of the referral History of Present Illness recent psychiatric symptoms, including pertinent positives and negatives includes timeframe of recent onset or exacerbation, symptom triggers, or recent treatment and treatment changes providing a snapshot of the onset and progression of the current issue Past Psychiatric History includes psychiatric hospitalizations, outpatient treatments, current and past medications, types of psychotherapy, and any suicide and/or violence history spanning early childhood to the present Substance Use History includes drug and alcohol use, when used, consequences of use, the recent pattern of use, last use, and treatment also includes nicotine and caffeine usage Review of Symptoms includes screening for present and past symptoms related to the diagnostic category section assists in defending and confirming DSMV diagnosis. Family History includes history of psychiatric disorders, substance abuse, and suicide in the client's family provides an understanding of the client's home life, their childhood experiences, education, and relationships Medical History includes significant medical illnesses, hospitalizations, surgeries, seizures, head injuries with loss of consciousness, and prescribed medications and the primary care provider Mental Status Exam includes observational and direct inquiry components and requires vivid description Assessment includes the diagnosis A list of differential diagnoses may be included, but the initial diagnosis listed is the DSM diagnosis. DSM vs Diagnosis includes all diagnoses involving psychiatric, personality, or medical disorders Treatment Plan includes any diagnostic testing planned, medications, therapy, client education (dosing instructions, side effects, expected benefits, when to note efficacy), referrals, follow-up care Mental Status defined as "a state of well-being in which every individual realizes his or her own potential, can cope with normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to her or his community" Consciousness Being aware of one's own existence, feelings, and thoughts and of the environment. This is the most elementary of mental status functions. Language Using the voice to communicate one's thoughts and feelings. This is a basic tool of humans, and its loss has a heavy social impact on the individual. Mood and affect Both of these elements deal with the prevailing feelings. Affect temporary expression of feelings or state of mind mood more durable, a prolonged display of feelings that color the whole emotional life. Orientation The awareness of the objective world in relation to the self. Able to name own person, place, and time Attention The power of concentration, the ability to focus on one specific thing without being distracted by many environmental stimuli. Memory The ability to lay down and store experiences and perceptions for later recall. Recent memory evokes day-to-day events remote memory brings up years' worth of experiences. Abstract reasoning Pondering a deeper meaning beyond the concrete and literal. Thought process The way a person thinks; the logical train of thought. Thought content What the person thinks—specific ideas, beliefs, the use of words. Perceptions An awareness of objects through the five senses. The mental status exam (MSE) is the best tool for establishing a psychiatric diagnosis. The MSE includes a combination of observations, impressions, and the interpretation of client responses and is analogous to the physical exam in the formulation of an accurate diagnosis. Components of the mental status exam include •: appearance• behavior• speech• mood• affect• thought process• thought content• cognition• insight/judgment appearance provides important clues about their mental status. Assessment of appearancce involves the observation and documentation of posture, dress, grooming, physical appearance (including distinguishable markings such as scars or tattoos), facial expressions, level of alertness, and attitudes. Cultural Considerations A client's dress or tattoos can reflect culture. For example, in the Samoan and Hawaiian cultures, men sometimes wear a pareo which resembles a skirt. Tattoos may symbolize a client's cultural identity or beliefs Behavior refers to how the client presents themselves during the examination. Assessment of behavior eye contact, psychomotor activity (increased or decreased), movements, mannerisms, stereotypies, and posturing. Behavioral assessment: Observe how the client responds to the exam. Are their responses appropriate to the topics? Can they sit still through the exam? Observe the client's gait as they walk into the office. Are their movements coordinated, slowed, or excessive? Speech Speech is an important diagnostic indicator. Assessment of speech general speech qualities including rate, rhythm, latency, volume, and content. Is the speech fast or slow? rate Is the speech monotone or slurred? rhythm Are there increased or decreased pauses between questions and answers? latency Is the speech soft, normal, or loud? volume Speech patterns diagnostic indicators of a mental health issue when considered in the context of other assessment findings. For example, an individual who presents with an extremely rapid and pressured speech with constant interruptions may be experiencing ___ or ___ hypomania or mania An absence of speech is seen with some diagnoses such as dementia non-sensical speech is often associated with psychotic disorders. Mood client's state of mind or prevalent emotional state. typically self-reported mood Stable is a good descriptor for mood is appropriate to their current situation. words used to describe mood bright, happy, angry, agitated, irritable, labile, anxious, depressed, or euphoric. Affect physical manifestation of the client's emotional state as observed by the provider. affect descriptors normal, blunted, bizarre, dysphoric, or euphoric. Stability Is the client's affect stable or labile? Appropriateness of affect Is the client's affect suitable for the content discussed? Range Is there a change in affect when describing different situations? Intensity Is there a change in facial expressions or is affect blunted or flat? Thought processes involve the rate of thoughts and how they flow and are connected. Normal thought processes linear and goal-directed. thought processes descriptions loose, circumstantial, or tangential. Clients may experience a flight of ideas little connection between thoughts or words. Assessment of thought processes involves questioning the client and listening to responses. thought processing may be slowed resulting in a delayed response to questioning in patients with ___ traumatic brain injuries Assessment of thought content examines themes, presence of of delusional, suicidal, or homicidal thoughts, intensity, specificity. Delusions fixed, false ideas that do not correspond to reality and are not part of a cultural belief system and may be indicative of several mental health diagnoses. Thought content assessment listening closely throughout the exam and through focused questioning. Suicidal and Homicidal Ideation vital component of the mental status exam. Suicide risk assessment likelihood of a client attempting suicide or self-harm. should be used to assess suicide preoccupation and planning Direct terms When assessing for suicidal ideations, should also assess for homicidal ideation, intent, attempts, and plans. critical to determine whether a plan exists assessing for suicidal or homicidal ideations determine if the client has access to the resources needed to execute the plan assessing for suicidal or homicidal ideations The more detailed and thorough the plan higher the risk for suicidal or homicidal ideations It is important to assess whether the plan is composed of fleeting thoughts rather than action steps It is important to assess whether the patient is angry and lashing out or intending to bring actual harm. To find out if the client is having suicidal thinking, what is an important question to ask? "Have you ever had any thoughts of hurting yourself or suicide?" How would you respond to a patient who states thy have thoughts of hurting self? Tell me more about those thoughts. Do you have a specific plan in mind for what you would do?" "How easy would it be for you to do this? Do you have access to a gun to follow through with your plan?" "What is it that holds you back from actually doing this? What are the reasons that you stop from trying to hurt yourself?" If the client states that they have access to a gun and a plan for using it, the plan of action for the safety of the client that is in an outpatient setting versus inpatient setting outpatient setting, hospitalization is likely. inpatient setting, they are not ready for discharge. Cognitive assessment evaluation of a client's level of awareness, attention, concentration, and memory. Assessment of memory includes immediate recall, short-term, and long-term memory Awareness assessed through observation with emphasis on the client's eyes and speech. Observation of alertness or wakefulness provides information about cognitive function and can help rule out potential substance use or intoxication. Documentation used to describe levels of awareness include alert and oriented, somnolent, drowsy, comatose. Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) is a 30-point questionnaire Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) measures cognitive impairment in the areas of orientation, attention, memory, language, and visual-spatial skills. Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) easy to administer, available in a variety of languages, requires no equipment Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) can be used to detect deterioration in functioning over time. What can impact the score of Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) age, education, visual or hearing impairment may impact scores. How might educational levels impact the results of the Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE)? Asking someone to spell a word backward or complete complicated math questions may be easier for someone who completed high school or post-secondary education. Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) Biased against people with poor education due to elements of language and mathematical testing Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) Biased against visually impaired, Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) Limited examination of visuospatial cognitive ability Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) Poor sensitivity at detected mild/early dementia Insight and Judgment final components of the mental status exam. Insight client's awareness of their illness or situation MSE Insight and Judgment -final components of the mental status exam determined to be good, limited, or poor judgement and insight judgment ability to anticipate the consequences of their behavior and safeguard their wellbeing. mini-cog total Possible Score: 0-5 mini-cog score obtained from adding the 3-item recall and clock drawing scores together. Recall Score Total Possible Score: 0-3, 1 point for each word correctly recalled Clock Drawing Score Total Possible Score: 0-2, 2 points for normal clock, must include all numbers, 1-12, and 2 hands present, one pointing to the 11 and one pointing to the 2, 0 points for abnormal clock Mini-Cog exam score of 0, 1, or 2 indicates higher likelihood of clinically important cognitive impairment Mini-Cog exam score of 3, 4, or 5 indicates lower likelihood of dementia Personal Knowledge memory of remote personal events Cognitively intact patients should be able to tell you Current address and phone number, Names and ages of spouse, siblings, and children, Spouse's birthday, wedding anniversary, and date and place of marriage (if married), Parents' names and birthdays (primarily for younger patients who are not married)

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NR548/ NR 548 Final exam (2026/2027 Update)
Psychiatric Assessment for the PMHNP |Qs & As-
Chamberlain.

Q. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
ANSWER
provides a legal framework for handling client information
-HIPAA rules help protect the privacy of the client's identifiable health information while facilitating
communication among providers and other entities
• ensure information is available for treatment and other purposes such as insurance benefits
-health professionals may be held legally liable by state and federal law for breaching confidentiality



Q. Release of Information
ANSWER
-HIPAA guides the PMHNP in making decisions about when to share information based on their professional
judgment to prevent harm
• may be necessary for providers to share mental and behavioral health information to enhance treatment or
ensure the health and safety of the client and others
-PMHNPs are mandatory reporters in cases of suspected child abuse



Q. Duty to Warn
ANSWER
exception to requirements for confidentiality
-Most states have laws that allow mental health professionals to share information about clients who may
become violent
-several states, it is even mandatory for providers to report when clients may pose a danger to themselves or
others



Q. John is a 36-year-old with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. He lives with his mother. His symptoms are
ANSWER
currently well managed by medications; however, he sometimes forgets to take them. At the visit with the
PMHNP, John asks the PMHNP to go over his medication regimen with his mother.
Is this allowed under HIPAA?
Yes

Rationale: In situations where the client is given the opportunity and does not object, HIPAA allows the
provider to share or discuss the client's mental health information with family members or other persons
involved in the client's care or payment for care
1

,Q. John's sister calls the PMHNP to discuss her concerns that John is under a lot of stress and may be showing
signs of psychosis. John has not permitted the PMHNP to speak with his sister as they are estranged, and John
has asked the PMHNP not to share information.
Is it acceptable for the PMHNP to share information about John's status with his sister?

ANSWER
No

Rationale: The HIPAA Privacy Rule permits a health care provider to disclose information to the family
members of an adult client who has the capacity and indicates that he or she does not want the disclosure
made, only to the extent that the provider perceives a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of the
client or others and the family members are in a position to lessen the threat. Otherwise, under HIPAA, the
provider must respect the wishes of the adult client who objects to the disclosure.



Q. Is it permissible for the PMHNP to listen to the sister's concerns without sharing information?
ANSWER
Yes

Rationale: HIPAA in no way prevents health care providers from listening to family members or other
caregivers who may have concerns about the health.



Q. John's mother recently had a stroke and is in the neuro intensive care unit (ICU). With his mother out of
the home, John has forgotten to take his medications for over a week. He begins to experience hallucinations
and paranoia. At his appointment with the PMHNP, he threatens to harm his sister.
To whom should the PMHNP disclose this information (select all that apply):

ANSWER
-John's sister
-John's mother's nurse in the neuro ICU
-Law enforcement near the sister's home
-A social worker from the Board of Developmental Disabilities who has been working with the family
-John's sister
-Law enforcement near the sister's home
-A social worker from the Board of Developmental Disabilities who has been working with the family

Rationale: The Privacy Rule permits a health care provider to disclose necessary information about a client to
law enforcement, family members of the client, or other persons when the provider believes the client presents
a serious and imminent threat to self or others. Specifically, when a health care provider believes in good faith
that such a warning is necessary to prevent or lessen a serious and imminent threat to the health or safety of
the client or others, the Privacy Rule allows the provider, consistent with applicable law and standards of
ethical conduct, to alert those persons whom the provider believes are reasonably able to prevent or lessen the
threat.




2

, Q. Informed Consent
ANSWER
for care and treatment is a fundamental ethical and legal principle
-respects the client's autonomy in medical decision-making
-Clients have the right to receive information and ask questions about recommended treatments so they can
make decisions about their care that are consistent with their beliefs, values, and goals of treatment
-Clients have the right to knowledge about their treatment under "reasonable practitioner" or "reasonable
person" standards under U. S. law.
-may change over time and in different circumstances
• is an ongoing process



Q. Steps to Obtaining Informed Consent
ANSWER
-Assess client ability to understand medical information & tx options & to make a voluntary decision

-Present relevant information with accuracy and sensitivity, Should include information about:
• Diagnosis
• Nature and purpose of treatment options
• Benefits, risks, and burdens of all treatment options, including forgoing treatment

-Document informed consent conversation in the medical record, including all consent forms



Q. Informed Consent: Documentation
ANSWER
Documentation of the discussion to obtain informed consent should include:
-treatment plans with risks and benefits identified
-reasonable alternatives with risks and benefits identified
-assessment of client understanding of the discussion

*must demonstrate that the client participated in the decision-making process and that the client was not
coerced into treatment



Q. Exceptions to Informed Consent:
ANSWER
-client incapacitation
-life-threatening emergencies
-voluntary waived consent
-client unable to make decisions and has no designated decision-maker
-involuntary treatment


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