PNH301 MATERNAL NEWBORN & PEDIATRIC NURSING
TEST 2 2026/2027 | Complete Solutions | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing - Prenatal Care & Pregnancy Complications (Q1-15)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she should schedule
prenatal visits. Which schedule should the practical nurse review?
A. Every week until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 2 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
D. Monthly visits throughout the entire pregnancy
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard prenatal visit scheduling is every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks gestation,
every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery. Weekly
visits from the start are excessive, and monthly visits throughout do not meet
surveillance standards for the third trimester.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. At 24 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's fundal height at 26 cm.
Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A. This indicates intrauterine growth restriction
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age
C. This suggests macrosomia requiring immediate intervention
D. This confirms a multiple gestation
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should correlate with gestational age in weeks
within a ±2 cm range; 26 cm at 24 weeks falls within normal limits. Intrauterine growth
restriction would measure >2 cm below gestational age, macrosomia would measure
significantly above, and fundal height alone cannot confirm multiples without
ultrasound.
Correct Answer: B
,Q3. A pregnant client at 32 weeks calls the clinic reporting severe headache, visual
disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which action should the practical nurse prioritize?
A. Schedule a routine appointment for next week
B. Advise the client to rest and drink fluids
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation
D. Recommend over-the-counter acetaminophen only
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain are danger signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory values. Delaying care or recommending rest could result in progression to
eclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Correct Answer: C
Q4. A client at 8 weeks gestation has persistent vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and
ketonuria. Which intervention should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Discharge home with oral antiemetics only
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring
C. Immediate surgical termination of pregnancy
D. Observation without intervention until 12 weeks
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring [CORRECT]
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting, weight loss,
and ketonuria indicating dehydration and starvation; management requires
hospitalization for IV fluids, antiemetics, electrolyte correction, and nutritional support.
Oral antiemetics alone are insufficient for dehydration, and observation without
intervention risks Wernicke encephalopathy.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. When should gestational diabetes screening typically be performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-16 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 38-40 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation [CORRECT]
, Rationale: Universal gestational diabetes screening is performed at 24-28 weeks
gestation because placental hormones causing insulin resistance peak during this
period. First-trimester screening is reserved for high-risk clients, and third-trimester
screening is too late for optimal management.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A client undergoes a 50g glucose challenge test with a result of 155 mg/dL at 26
weeks. Which is the appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin insulin
B. Proceed to a 100g oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis
C. Repeat the 50g test in 2 weeks
D. No further testing is needed
B. Proceed to a 100g oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis [CORRECT]
Rationale: A 50g glucose challenge test result ≥130-140 mg/dL (threshold varies by
protocol) requires follow-up with a diagnostic 100g oral glucose tolerance test to
confirm gestational diabetes. The screening test alone is not diagnostic, and repeating
the screen or ignoring the result delays necessary intervention.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A pregnant client at 34 weeks has blood pressure readings of 142/92 mmHg on two
occasions 4 hours apart and 2+ proteinuria on dipstick. Which condition does this
indicate?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
C. Preeclampsia [CORRECT]
Rationale: Preeclampsia is diagnosed by new-onset hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg on
two occasions at least 4 hours apart) after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by
proteinuria or other systemic findings. Chronic hypertension predates pregnancy,
gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria, and eclampsia requires seizure activity.
Correct Answer: C
Q8. A client at 36 weeks gestation experiences a witnessed tonic-clonic seizure. Blood
pressure is 168/110 mmHg. Which condition is present?
A. Preeclampsia without severe features
TEST 2 2026/2027 | Complete Solutions | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing - Prenatal Care & Pregnancy Complications (Q1-15)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she should schedule
prenatal visits. Which schedule should the practical nurse review?
A. Every week until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 2 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
D. Monthly visits throughout the entire pregnancy
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard prenatal visit scheduling is every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks gestation,
every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery. Weekly
visits from the start are excessive, and monthly visits throughout do not meet
surveillance standards for the third trimester.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. At 24 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's fundal height at 26 cm.
Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A. This indicates intrauterine growth restriction
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age
C. This suggests macrosomia requiring immediate intervention
D. This confirms a multiple gestation
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should correlate with gestational age in weeks
within a ±2 cm range; 26 cm at 24 weeks falls within normal limits. Intrauterine growth
restriction would measure >2 cm below gestational age, macrosomia would measure
significantly above, and fundal height alone cannot confirm multiples without
ultrasound.
Correct Answer: B
,Q3. A pregnant client at 32 weeks calls the clinic reporting severe headache, visual
disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which action should the practical nurse prioritize?
A. Schedule a routine appointment for next week
B. Advise the client to rest and drink fluids
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation
D. Recommend over-the-counter acetaminophen only
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain are danger signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory values. Delaying care or recommending rest could result in progression to
eclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Correct Answer: C
Q4. A client at 8 weeks gestation has persistent vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and
ketonuria. Which intervention should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Discharge home with oral antiemetics only
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring
C. Immediate surgical termination of pregnancy
D. Observation without intervention until 12 weeks
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring [CORRECT]
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting, weight loss,
and ketonuria indicating dehydration and starvation; management requires
hospitalization for IV fluids, antiemetics, electrolyte correction, and nutritional support.
Oral antiemetics alone are insufficient for dehydration, and observation without
intervention risks Wernicke encephalopathy.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. When should gestational diabetes screening typically be performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-16 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 38-40 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation [CORRECT]
, Rationale: Universal gestational diabetes screening is performed at 24-28 weeks
gestation because placental hormones causing insulin resistance peak during this
period. First-trimester screening is reserved for high-risk clients, and third-trimester
screening is too late for optimal management.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A client undergoes a 50g glucose challenge test with a result of 155 mg/dL at 26
weeks. Which is the appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin insulin
B. Proceed to a 100g oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis
C. Repeat the 50g test in 2 weeks
D. No further testing is needed
B. Proceed to a 100g oral glucose tolerance test for definitive diagnosis [CORRECT]
Rationale: A 50g glucose challenge test result ≥130-140 mg/dL (threshold varies by
protocol) requires follow-up with a diagnostic 100g oral glucose tolerance test to
confirm gestational diabetes. The screening test alone is not diagnostic, and repeating
the screen or ignoring the result delays necessary intervention.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A pregnant client at 34 weeks has blood pressure readings of 142/92 mmHg on two
occasions 4 hours apart and 2+ proteinuria on dipstick. Which condition does this
indicate?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
C. Preeclampsia [CORRECT]
Rationale: Preeclampsia is diagnosed by new-onset hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg on
two occasions at least 4 hours apart) after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by
proteinuria or other systemic findings. Chronic hypertension predates pregnancy,
gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria, and eclampsia requires seizure activity.
Correct Answer: C
Q8. A client at 36 weeks gestation experiences a witnessed tonic-clonic seizure. Blood
pressure is 168/110 mmHg. Which condition is present?
A. Preeclampsia without severe features
