ACVPM PRACTICE TEST 2026 | American College of
Veterinary Preventive Medicine | 100% Correct Solutions |
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Section 1: Epidemiology & Biostatistics (Q1-20)
Q1. A veterinarian screens 1,000 dairy cattle for bovine tuberculosis using an
intradermal test. One hundred animals are truly infected; the test correctly identifies
85 infected animals and incorrectly classifies 15 uninfected animals as positive. The
remaining 885 uninfected animals test negative. What is the sensitivity of this
screening test?
A. 75%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 98%
B. 85% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) = 85/(85+15) = 85/100 = 85%. Option A
incorrectly subtracts false positives. Option C overestimates by using the wrong
denominator. Option D is specificity. Correct Answer: B
Q2. Using the same bovine tuberculosis screening data (85 true positive, 15 false
positive, 15 false negative, 885 true negative), what is the specificity of the test?
A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 94%
D. 98.3%
D. 98.3% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Specificity = TN/(TN+FP) = 885/(885+15) = 885/900 = 98.3%. Option A is
PPV. Option B misdivides. Option C underestimates specificity. Correct Answer: D
Q3. In the same bovine tuberculosis screening study with a herd prevalence of 10%,
what is the positive predictive value?
,A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 90%
D. 98.3%
A. 85% [CORRECT]
Rationale: PPV = TP/(TP+FP) = 85/(85+15) = 85/100 = 85%. Option D is specificity.
Option B and C result from incorrect denominator selection. Correct Answer: A
Q4. What is the negative predictive value of the screening test described above?
A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 94%
D. 98.3%
D. 98.3% [CORRECT]
Rationale: NPV = TN/(TN+FN) = 885/(885+15) = 885/900 = 98.3%. Option A is PPV.
Options B and C are miscalculations. Correct Answer: D
Q5. A cohort study follows 300 feedlot calves exposed to a novel bovine respiratory
disease risk factor and 300 unexposed calves for 60 days. Forty exposed calves
develop BRD compared with 10 unexposed calves. What is the relative risk?
A. 2.0
B. 3.0
C. 4.0
D. 8.0
C. 4.0 [CORRECT]
Rationale: RR = (40/300)/(10/300) = 0.133/0.033 = 4.0. Option B incorrectly divides
40 by 10 without considering denominators. Option A halves the ratio. Option D
doubles the numerator product. Correct Answer: C
Q6. A case-control study of canine leptospirosis identifies 70 case dogs with known
exposure to standing water and 30 case dogs without exposure. Among 100 control
dogs, 20 had exposure to standing water and 80 did not. What is the odds ratio?
A. 3.5
B. 7.0
,C. 9.3
D. 12.0
C. 9.3 [CORRECT]
Rationale: OR = (a×d)/(b×c) = (70×80)/(30×20) = 5600/600 = 9.33. Option A divides
70/20. Option B divides 70/10. Option D incorrectly inverts the formula. Correct
Answer: C
Q7. A study follows 5,000 dog-years at risk in a kennel population and documents 40
new cases of parvovirus enteritis over one year. What is the incidence rate?
A. 0.8 per 1,000 dog-years
B. 8 per 1,000 dog-years
C. 12.5 per 1,000 dog-years
D. 125 per 1,000 dog-years
B. 8 per 1,000 dog-years [CORRECT]
Rationale: Incidence rate = 40/5,000 = 0.008 = 8 per 1,000 dog-years. Option A is a
decimal error. Option C inverts the fraction. Option D misplaces the decimal. Correct
Answer: B
Q8. A cross-sectional survey of 1,500 horses finds 90 animals with gastric ulcers.
What is the period prevalence of gastric ulcers in this population?
A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 9%
D. 15%
B. 6% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Prevalence = 90/1,500 = 0.06 = 6%. Option A divides by 3,000. Option C
uses 135/1,500. Option D uses 225/1,500. Correct Answer: B
Q9. In a feedlot cohort study, calves fed a high-risk diet have a BRD incidence of 15%
while calves on a standard diet have an incidence of 5%. What is the attributable risk?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 33%
, B. 10% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Attributable risk = exposed incidence − unexposed incidence = 15% − 5%
= 10%. Option A is the unexposed rate. Option C is the exposed rate. Option D is the
attributable risk percent [(15-5)/15]. Correct Answer: B
Q10. A chronic disease in dairy cattle has an incidence of 2 cases per 1,000 cow-years
but an average disease duration of 10 years because affected cows are not culled.
Which epidemiologic principle explains why the point prevalence will be substantially
higher than the incidence rate?
A. Prevalence is the product of incidence and average disease duration
B. Prevalence equals incidence divided by disease duration
C. Prevalence is unaffected by disease duration
D. Prevalence is always lower than incidence in chronic diseases
A. Prevalence is the product of incidence and average disease duration [CORRECT]
Rationale: Under steady-state conditions, prevalence ≈ incidence × duration; long
duration increases prevalence even with low incidence. Option B inverts the
relationship. Option C is false. Option D is opposite for chronic diseases. Correct
Answer: A
Q11. A state veterinarian surveys 500 randomly selected sheep flocks at a single
point in time to determine the proportion seropositive for Coxiella burnetii. This
study design is best classified as:
A. Cohort study
B. Case-control study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Randomized controlled trial
C. Cross-sectional study [CORRECT]
Rationale: A cross-sectional study measures exposure and outcome simultaneously in
a defined population at one time point. Option A follows groups over time. Option B
selects by outcome status. Option D involves intervention allocation. Correct Answer:
C
Q12. Investigators recruit 200 dairy herds with digital dermatitis and 200 unaffected
herds, then retrospectively assess biosecurity practices. This design allows calculation
of:
Veterinary Preventive Medicine | 100% Correct Solutions |
Board Exam Prep | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Epidemiology & Biostatistics (Q1-20)
Q1. A veterinarian screens 1,000 dairy cattle for bovine tuberculosis using an
intradermal test. One hundred animals are truly infected; the test correctly identifies
85 infected animals and incorrectly classifies 15 uninfected animals as positive. The
remaining 885 uninfected animals test negative. What is the sensitivity of this
screening test?
A. 75%
B. 85%
C. 90%
D. 98%
B. 85% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) = 85/(85+15) = 85/100 = 85%. Option A
incorrectly subtracts false positives. Option C overestimates by using the wrong
denominator. Option D is specificity. Correct Answer: B
Q2. Using the same bovine tuberculosis screening data (85 true positive, 15 false
positive, 15 false negative, 885 true negative), what is the specificity of the test?
A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 94%
D. 98.3%
D. 98.3% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Specificity = TN/(TN+FP) = 885/(885+15) = 885/900 = 98.3%. Option A is
PPV. Option B misdivides. Option C underestimates specificity. Correct Answer: D
Q3. In the same bovine tuberculosis screening study with a herd prevalence of 10%,
what is the positive predictive value?
,A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 90%
D. 98.3%
A. 85% [CORRECT]
Rationale: PPV = TP/(TP+FP) = 85/(85+15) = 85/100 = 85%. Option D is specificity.
Option B and C result from incorrect denominator selection. Correct Answer: A
Q4. What is the negative predictive value of the screening test described above?
A. 85%
B. 88.5%
C. 94%
D. 98.3%
D. 98.3% [CORRECT]
Rationale: NPV = TN/(TN+FN) = 885/(885+15) = 885/900 = 98.3%. Option A is PPV.
Options B and C are miscalculations. Correct Answer: D
Q5. A cohort study follows 300 feedlot calves exposed to a novel bovine respiratory
disease risk factor and 300 unexposed calves for 60 days. Forty exposed calves
develop BRD compared with 10 unexposed calves. What is the relative risk?
A. 2.0
B. 3.0
C. 4.0
D. 8.0
C. 4.0 [CORRECT]
Rationale: RR = (40/300)/(10/300) = 0.133/0.033 = 4.0. Option B incorrectly divides
40 by 10 without considering denominators. Option A halves the ratio. Option D
doubles the numerator product. Correct Answer: C
Q6. A case-control study of canine leptospirosis identifies 70 case dogs with known
exposure to standing water and 30 case dogs without exposure. Among 100 control
dogs, 20 had exposure to standing water and 80 did not. What is the odds ratio?
A. 3.5
B. 7.0
,C. 9.3
D. 12.0
C. 9.3 [CORRECT]
Rationale: OR = (a×d)/(b×c) = (70×80)/(30×20) = 5600/600 = 9.33. Option A divides
70/20. Option B divides 70/10. Option D incorrectly inverts the formula. Correct
Answer: C
Q7. A study follows 5,000 dog-years at risk in a kennel population and documents 40
new cases of parvovirus enteritis over one year. What is the incidence rate?
A. 0.8 per 1,000 dog-years
B. 8 per 1,000 dog-years
C. 12.5 per 1,000 dog-years
D. 125 per 1,000 dog-years
B. 8 per 1,000 dog-years [CORRECT]
Rationale: Incidence rate = 40/5,000 = 0.008 = 8 per 1,000 dog-years. Option A is a
decimal error. Option C inverts the fraction. Option D misplaces the decimal. Correct
Answer: B
Q8. A cross-sectional survey of 1,500 horses finds 90 animals with gastric ulcers.
What is the period prevalence of gastric ulcers in this population?
A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 9%
D. 15%
B. 6% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Prevalence = 90/1,500 = 0.06 = 6%. Option A divides by 3,000. Option C
uses 135/1,500. Option D uses 225/1,500. Correct Answer: B
Q9. In a feedlot cohort study, calves fed a high-risk diet have a BRD incidence of 15%
while calves on a standard diet have an incidence of 5%. What is the attributable risk?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 33%
, B. 10% [CORRECT]
Rationale: Attributable risk = exposed incidence − unexposed incidence = 15% − 5%
= 10%. Option A is the unexposed rate. Option C is the exposed rate. Option D is the
attributable risk percent [(15-5)/15]. Correct Answer: B
Q10. A chronic disease in dairy cattle has an incidence of 2 cases per 1,000 cow-years
but an average disease duration of 10 years because affected cows are not culled.
Which epidemiologic principle explains why the point prevalence will be substantially
higher than the incidence rate?
A. Prevalence is the product of incidence and average disease duration
B. Prevalence equals incidence divided by disease duration
C. Prevalence is unaffected by disease duration
D. Prevalence is always lower than incidence in chronic diseases
A. Prevalence is the product of incidence and average disease duration [CORRECT]
Rationale: Under steady-state conditions, prevalence ≈ incidence × duration; long
duration increases prevalence even with low incidence. Option B inverts the
relationship. Option C is false. Option D is opposite for chronic diseases. Correct
Answer: A
Q11. A state veterinarian surveys 500 randomly selected sheep flocks at a single
point in time to determine the proportion seropositive for Coxiella burnetii. This
study design is best classified as:
A. Cohort study
B. Case-control study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Randomized controlled trial
C. Cross-sectional study [CORRECT]
Rationale: A cross-sectional study measures exposure and outcome simultaneously in
a defined population at one time point. Option A follows groups over time. Option B
selects by outcome status. Option D involves intervention allocation. Correct Answer:
C
Q12. Investigators recruit 200 dairy herds with digital dermatitis and 200 unaffected
herds, then retrospectively assess biosecurity practices. This design allows calculation
of:
