PNH301 MATERNAL NEWBORN & PEDIATRIC
NURSING
TEST 2 2026/2027 | Complete Solutions | Pass
Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing – Prenatal Care & Pregnancy Complications (Q1-
15)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she should schedule
prenatal visits. Which schedule should the practical nurse review?
A. Every week until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 2 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
D. Monthly visits throughout the entire pregnancy
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard prenatal visit scheduling is every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks gestation,
every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery. Weekly
visits from the start are excessive, and monthly visits throughout do not meet
surveillance standards for the third trimester.
Q2. At 24 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's fundal height at 26 cm.
Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A. This indicates intrauterine growth restriction
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age
C. This suggests macrosomia requiring immediate intervention
D. This confirms a multiple gestation
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should correlate with gestational age in weeks
,within a ±2 cm range; 26 cm at 24 weeks falls within normal limits. Intrauterine growth
restriction would measure >2 cm below gestational age, macrosomia would measure
significantly above, and fundal height alone cannot confirm multiples without
ultrasound.
Q3. A pregnant client at 32 weeks calls the clinic reporting severe headache, visual
disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which action should the practical nurse prioritize?
A. Schedule a routine appointment for next week
B. Advise the client to rest and drink fluids
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation
D. Recommend over-the-counter acetaminophen only
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain are danger signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory values. Delaying care or recommending rest could result in progression to
eclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Q4. A client at 8 weeks gestation has persistent vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and
ketonuria. Which intervention should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Discharge home with oral antiemetics only
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring
C. Immediate surgical termination of pregnancy
D. Observation without intervention until 12 weeks
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring [CORRECT]
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting, weight loss,
and ketonuria indicating dehydration and starvation; management requires
hospitalization for IV fluids, antiemetics, electrolyte correction, and nutritional support.
Oral antiemetics alone are insufficient for dehydration, and observation without
intervention risks Wernicke encephalopathy.
,Q5. When should gestational diabetes screening typically be performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-16 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 38-40 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes is typically performed between
24 and 28 weeks gestation when insulin resistance peaks. Earlier screening is reserved
for high-risk women.
Q6. A client at 36 weeks gestation with preeclampsia has a blood pressure of 158/102
mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. Which medication should the practical nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Nifedipine
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Terbutaline
D. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate [CORRECT]
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the first-line agent for seizure prophylaxis in severe
preeclampsia. Nifedipine treats hypertension but not seizure risk; terbutaline is a
tocolytic; betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity but is not used at 36 weeks.
Q7. A pregnant client with Rh-negative blood at 28 weeks gestation has not yet
received RhoGAM. The nurse should prepare to administer RhoGAM for which primary
purpose?
A. Treat fetal anemia
B. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood
C. Reduce maternal blood pressure
D. Increase placental blood flow
B. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood [CORRECT]
Rationale: RhoGAM (Rho(D) immune globulin) prevents the mother from forming
, antibodies against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. It is given at 28 weeks and within 72
hours after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which symptom should
the nurse include as a priority to report?
A. Mild intermittent backache
B. Menstrual-like cramps occurring every 10 minutes
C. Increased fetal movement
D. Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
B. Menstrual-like cramps occurring every 10 minutes [CORRECT]
Rationale: Regular uterine contractions (every 10 minutes or less) and menstrual-like
cramps are signs of preterm labor before 37 weeks. Mild backache and Braxton-Hicks
are common and not necessarily preterm; increased fetal movement is reassuring.
Q9. At 12 weeks gestation, a client reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The
nurse suspects placenta previa. Which action is contraindicated?
A. Assessing fetal heart rate
B. Obtaining vital signs
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination
D. Placing the client on bed rest
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination [CORRECT]
Rationale: Digital vaginal examination in suspected placenta previa can disrupt the
placenta and cause massive hemorrhage. Assessment of fetal heart rate, vital signs, and
bed rest are appropriate.
Q10. A client with gestational diabetes at 34 weeks has a fasting blood glucose of 105
mg/dL. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
A. Increase insulin dosage immediately
B. Eat a bedtime snack containing protein and complex carbohydrates
NURSING
TEST 2 2026/2027 | Complete Solutions | Pass
Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing – Prenatal Care & Pregnancy Complications (Q1-
15)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks how often she should schedule
prenatal visits. Which schedule should the practical nurse review?
A. Every week until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly
C. Every 2 weeks until 32 weeks, then weekly
D. Monthly visits throughout the entire pregnancy
B. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
Rationale: Standard prenatal visit scheduling is every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks gestation,
every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until delivery. Weekly
visits from the start are excessive, and monthly visits throughout do not meet
surveillance standards for the third trimester.
Q2. At 24 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's fundal height at 26 cm.
Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A. This indicates intrauterine growth restriction
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age
C. This suggests macrosomia requiring immediate intervention
D. This confirms a multiple gestation
B. This is consistent with expected gestational age [CORRECT]
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should correlate with gestational age in weeks
,within a ±2 cm range; 26 cm at 24 weeks falls within normal limits. Intrauterine growth
restriction would measure >2 cm below gestational age, macrosomia would measure
significantly above, and fundal height alone cannot confirm multiples without
ultrasound.
Q3. A pregnant client at 32 weeks calls the clinic reporting severe headache, visual
disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which action should the practical nurse prioritize?
A. Schedule a routine appointment for next week
B. Advise the client to rest and drink fluids
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation
D. Recommend over-the-counter acetaminophen only
C. Instruct the client to come immediately for evaluation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain are danger signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory values. Delaying care or recommending rest could result in progression to
eclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Q4. A client at 8 weeks gestation has persistent vomiting, weight loss of 5 pounds, and
ketonuria. Which intervention should the practical nurse anticipate?
A. Discharge home with oral antiemetics only
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring
C. Immediate surgical termination of pregnancy
D. Observation without intervention until 12 weeks
B. Admission for IV fluid replacement, antiemetics, and weight monitoring [CORRECT]
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting, weight loss,
and ketonuria indicating dehydration and starvation; management requires
hospitalization for IV fluids, antiemetics, electrolyte correction, and nutritional support.
Oral antiemetics alone are insufficient for dehydration, and observation without
intervention risks Wernicke encephalopathy.
,Q5. When should gestational diabetes screening typically be performed in a low-risk
pregnancy?
A. 12-16 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 38-40 weeks gestation
B. 24-28 weeks gestation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Universal screening for gestational diabetes is typically performed between
24 and 28 weeks gestation when insulin resistance peaks. Earlier screening is reserved
for high-risk women.
Q6. A client at 36 weeks gestation with preeclampsia has a blood pressure of 158/102
mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. Which medication should the practical nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Nifedipine
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Terbutaline
D. Betamethasone
B. Magnesium sulfate [CORRECT]
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the first-line agent for seizure prophylaxis in severe
preeclampsia. Nifedipine treats hypertension but not seizure risk; terbutaline is a
tocolytic; betamethasone promotes fetal lung maturity but is not used at 36 weeks.
Q7. A pregnant client with Rh-negative blood at 28 weeks gestation has not yet
received RhoGAM. The nurse should prepare to administer RhoGAM for which primary
purpose?
A. Treat fetal anemia
B. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood
C. Reduce maternal blood pressure
D. Increase placental blood flow
B. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood [CORRECT]
Rationale: RhoGAM (Rho(D) immune globulin) prevents the mother from forming
, antibodies against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. It is given at 28 weeks and within 72
hours after delivery if the infant is Rh-positive.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which symptom should
the nurse include as a priority to report?
A. Mild intermittent backache
B. Menstrual-like cramps occurring every 10 minutes
C. Increased fetal movement
D. Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
B. Menstrual-like cramps occurring every 10 minutes [CORRECT]
Rationale: Regular uterine contractions (every 10 minutes or less) and menstrual-like
cramps are signs of preterm labor before 37 weeks. Mild backache and Braxton-Hicks
are common and not necessarily preterm; increased fetal movement is reassuring.
Q9. At 12 weeks gestation, a client reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The
nurse suspects placenta previa. Which action is contraindicated?
A. Assessing fetal heart rate
B. Obtaining vital signs
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination
D. Placing the client on bed rest
C. Performing a digital vaginal examination [CORRECT]
Rationale: Digital vaginal examination in suspected placenta previa can disrupt the
placenta and cause massive hemorrhage. Assessment of fetal heart rate, vital signs, and
bed rest are appropriate.
Q10. A client with gestational diabetes at 34 weeks has a fasting blood glucose of 105
mg/dL. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
A. Increase insulin dosage immediately
B. Eat a bedtime snack containing protein and complex carbohydrates
