2026–2027
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📋 DOCUMENT OVERVIEW 149 Qs
This document, "ATI Comprehensive Practice B 2026–2027," covers essential topics in nursing, including
respiratory care for cystic fibrosis patients, surgical asepsis, stroke management, chest tube care,
patient assessment, and postoperative care for procedures like hip replacement and general anesthesia.
The document provides 149 questions with correct answers and detailed explanations, serving as a
comprehensive review of key nursing concepts. Students can use this resource to study, review, and
understand various concepts, enhancing their exam preparation and clinical decision-making skills.
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EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
A nurse is caring for a client who has cystic fibrosis and requires respiratory therapy. Which of the
following prescriptions is anticipated by the nurse when reviewing the client's medication regimen?
A) Administer inhaled hypertonic saline every 6 hours to thin mucus.
B) Use a flutter mucus clearance device every 2 hours to improve airway clearance.
C) Administer pancreatic enzymes orally with breakfast to aid digestion.
D) Perform airway clearance therapy immediately after feeding to enhance respiratory function.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Administer pancreatic enzymes orally with breakfast to aid digestion.
RATIONALE: The nurse anticipates a prescription to administer pancreatic enzymes orally with meals to aid digestion
and ensure proper absorption of essential nutrients. This is a common strategy for managing gastrointestinal symptoms
in clients with cystic fibrosis.
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, QUESTION 2
A client arrives at the emergency department with a prescription for a sterile dressing change. To
maintain surgical asepsis during the procedure, which of the following interventions should the nurse
use?
A) Hold sterile objects above the sterile field.
B) Keep sterile items within a 2 cm (0.8 in) border of the sterile drape.
C) Maintain sterile objects within the line of vision.
D) Store sterile supplies in a separate room.
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Maintain sterile objects within the line of vision.
RATIONALE: Maintaining sterile objects within the line of vision ensures that the nurse can identify and handle sterile
items without compromising asepsis. This helps prevent contamination and maintain a sterile environment, essential for
surgical procedures. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe proper sterile technique.
QUESTION 3
The nurse is assessing a patient who experienced a stroke and has right-sided weakness. Which
action should the nurse take first to minimize the risk of injury from falls?
A) Arrange for a home nurse visit to assess the patient's home safety.
B) Request a referral for physical therapy to improve the patient's mobility.
C) Ask the patient's family to help with fall prevention by removing tripping hazards.
D) Send a prescription for a walker to aid the patient's ambulation.
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Request a referral for physical therapy to improve the patient's mobility.
RATIONALE: The nurse should request a referral for physical therapy to improve the patient's mobility and strength,
thereby reducing the risk of falls. Arranging for a home nurse visit and asking the patient's family for help are secondary
measures, and sending a prescription for a walker does not address the underlying risk of falls.
QUESTION 4
A patient has a prescription for a chest tube. Which of the following is an expected finding for the
occlusive dressing on the insertion site?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
B) Drainage of 100 mL/hr
C) Drainage system located below the client's chest level
D) Sterile, dry occlusive dressing
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Sterile, dry occlusive dressing
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, RATIONALE: An occlusive dressing on the insertion site is expected to prevent air from leaking. Bubbling in the water-
seal chamber (Option A) indicates air leak and is not expected. Drainage rates (Option B) may vary. A drainage system
below chest level (Option C) is not specific to the occlusive dressing.
QUESTION 5
The nurse receives report on four clients at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following clients
should the nurse attend to first?
A) A client who has received medication for pain and is experiencing nausea
B) A client who has been trying to get out of bed and reports confusion
C) A client who has an elevated temperature of 38.2° C (100.8° F) and requests a cup of ice chips
D) A client who has voided and is ready for a bladder scan
CORRECT ANSWER
B) A client who has been trying to get out of bed and reports confusion
RATIONALE: The nurse should prioritize attending to the client who has been trying to get out of bed and reports
confusion due to the risk of injury from a fall. This client requires immediate attention and intervention to ensure safety.
QUESTION 6
A client reports being awakened in the recovery room with a high-pitched sound in the airway
following general anesthesia. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse report to the
healthcare provider?
A) A heart rate of 120 beats per minute
B) A blood pressure 10 mm Hg lower than the preoperative level
C) A normal respiratory rate with occasional coughing
D) A high-pitched sound heard in the client's airway
CORRECT ANSWER
D) A high-pitched sound heard in the client's airway
RATIONALE: The high-pitched sound in the client's airway, or stridor, may indicate edema, laryngeal spasm, secretions,
or airway obstruction, which could become life-threatening. The nurse should report this finding to the healthcare
provider immediately to ensure proper management.
QUESTION 7
A nurse observes a client with a deficit involving the optic nerve. The client is at risk for injury due to
decreased visual acuity.
A) Evaluate the client's hearing acuity.
B) Clear objects from the client's walking area.
C) Ask the client to restate directions.
D) Administer a vision test.
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, CORRECT ANSWER
B) Clear objects from the client's walking area.
RATIONALE: Clearing objects from the client's walking area is essential to prevent falls due to decreased visual acuity
resulting from a deficit involving the optic nerve. Evaluating hearing acuity is not relevant, asking the client to restate
directions may not be necessary, and administering a vision test is not a priority action at this time.
QUESTION 8
After reviewing the client's chart, the nurse notes a client with peripheral arterial disease requires
education on proper skin care.
A) Elevates the feet above the level of the heart when resting
B) Trims toenails with a rounded edge to prevent ingrown toenails
C) Applies lubricating lotion to feet to prevent dry, cracked skin
D) Warms feet with a heating pad while sleeping to increase circulation
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Applies lubricating lotion to feet to prevent dry, cracked skin
RATIONALE: Applying lubricating lotion to the feet helps prevent dry, cracked skin, which is a common complication for
clients with peripheral arterial disease. Elevating the feet, trimming toenails, and warming the feet with a heating pad
do not directly address skin care.
QUESTION 9
The healthcare provider prescribes an abdominal assessment for a client scheduled for surgery. In
performing the assessment, what is the correct sequence of actions for the nurse to take?
A) Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C) Palpation, auscultation, percussion, inspection
D) Inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
RATIONALE: The nurse should inspect the client's abdomen first to assess skin integrity and symmetry. Next,
auscultation is performed to assess bowel sounds prior to palpation and percussion, which can alter these sounds.
Finally, percussion and palpation are performed to assess abdominal tenderness and masses.
QUESTION 10
A postoperative client develops a need for identity exploration and self-discovery during the
immediate recovery period. Which of the following expected age-related changes is most relevant to
this need?
A) Decreased self-awareness and identity exploration
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