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CFT MONITOR CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027 |
Functional Training | Complete Q&A | Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Functional Movement Screening & Assessment (Q1-15)
Q1. During a Functional Movement Screen, a client performs the Deep Squat but
cannot maintain heel contact with the ground while achieving proper depth, despite
using a 2×4 board under the heels. The client shows no pain. What is the appropriate
FMS score?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
B. 1 [CORRECT]
Rationale: An FMS score of 1 indicates the client cannot complete the movement
pattern even with compensation. A score of 2 would mean completion with
compensation, 3 is perfect, and 0 indicates pain.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A 35-year-old client performs an overhead squat assessment. As they descend,
their knees cave inward, their heels remain flat, and their arms fall forward. Which
combination of limitations is most likely present?
A. Ankle mobility limitation and shoulder stability limitation
B. Hip mobility limitation and thoracic mobility limitation
C. Gluteus medius weakness and shoulder mobility limitation
D. Core instability and ankle mobility limitation
,2
C. Gluteus medius weakness and shoulder mobility limitation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Knees caving inward (valgus) during squatting typically indicates gluteus
medius weakness or hip stability limitation, while arms falling forward indicates
shoulder or thoracic mobility restriction. Heels remaining flat rules out ankle mobility
as the primary issue.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. While reviewing video of a client's overhead squat, the CFT Monitor notices the
client's lumbar spine goes into excessive extension at the bottom of the squat while
the arms remain vertical. The heels stay flat and knees track properly. What is the
primary corrective strategy?
A. Foam rolling the thoracic spine and performing wall slides
B. Activating the anterior core with dead bug progressions and coaching a neutral rib
position
C. Stretching the hip flexors and performing ankle mobilizations
D. Strengthening the gluteus medius with lateral band walks
B. Activating the anterior core with dead bug progressions and coaching a neutral rib
position [CORRECT]
Rationale: Excessive lumbar extension (anterior pelvic tilt/rib flare) at the bottom of a
squat indicates anterior core instability and poor lumbopelvic control. Dead bugs and
rib positioning cues address this directly. The other options target mobility or
stability issues not present in this movement signature.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A client demonstrates difficulty controlling scapular retraction during a single-
arm cable row, causing the shoulder to protract excessively at the end range. This
primarily indicates a deficiency in which foundational movement pattern?
,3
A. Push pattern
B. Pull pattern
C. Rotary stability pattern
D. Hinge pattern
B. Pull pattern [CORRECT]
Rationale: Scapular retraction control during rowing is a fundamental component of
the pull pattern. Inability to maintain retraction indicates weakness or motor control
deficits in the pull pattern, specifically involving the rhomboids, middle trapezius, and
latissimus dorsi.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. During a single-leg stance assessment, a 42-year-old client can stand on the
right leg for 10 seconds with eyes open but loses balance within 2 seconds when
closing their eyes. What does this result primarily indicate?
A. Vestibular dominance in balance strategy
B. Proprioceptive deficit requiring visual compensation
C. Hip flexor tightness on the stance leg
D. Gluteus maximus weakness
B. Proprioceptive deficit requiring visual compensation [CORRECT]
Rationale: The dramatic decrease in balance performance when visual input is
removed indicates the client relies heavily on vision to maintain stability, suggesting
a proprioceptive deficit in the ankle and/or hip. This is a common finding that
warrants proprioceptive training.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. During assessment, a client demonstrates adequate passive hip range of motion
(120 degrees flexion) but cannot maintain a neutral lumbar spine during a loaded hip
hinge, instead flexing through the lumbar spine. This best illustrates which principle?
, 4
A. Mobility limitation of the hip joint
B. Stability/motor control dysfunction of the core
C. Stability limitation of the hip joint
D. Mobility dysfunction of the lumbar spine
B. Stability/motor control dysfunction of the core [CORRECT]
Rationale: When passive range of motion is adequate but active movement control is
poor, this indicates a stability or motor control deficit rather than a true mobility
limitation. The client has hip mobility but lacks the core stability to maintain a neutral
spine during the hinge pattern.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. Video analysis of a client's overhead squat reveals the torso leans excessively
forward, the arms fall forward, and the heels lift off the ground. However, when the
client performs the squat holding a TRX for support, the heels remain flat and the
torso stays upright. What is the primary limitation?
A. Ankle dorsiflexion mobility
B. Hip flexor tightness
C. Thoracic spine mobility
D. Gluteus medius weakness
A. Ankle dorsiflexion mobility [CORRECT]
Rationale: When support (TRX) eliminates the forward lean and heel lift, this indicates
the limitation is not in the hips or thoracic spine but rather in ankle mobility. The TRX
provides anterior support that reduces the demand for ankle dorsiflexion, confirming
the ankle as the primary limitation.
Correct Answer: A
CFT MONITOR CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027 |
Functional Training | Complete Q&A | Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Functional Movement Screening & Assessment (Q1-15)
Q1. During a Functional Movement Screen, a client performs the Deep Squat but
cannot maintain heel contact with the ground while achieving proper depth, despite
using a 2×4 board under the heels. The client shows no pain. What is the appropriate
FMS score?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
B. 1 [CORRECT]
Rationale: An FMS score of 1 indicates the client cannot complete the movement
pattern even with compensation. A score of 2 would mean completion with
compensation, 3 is perfect, and 0 indicates pain.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A 35-year-old client performs an overhead squat assessment. As they descend,
their knees cave inward, their heels remain flat, and their arms fall forward. Which
combination of limitations is most likely present?
A. Ankle mobility limitation and shoulder stability limitation
B. Hip mobility limitation and thoracic mobility limitation
C. Gluteus medius weakness and shoulder mobility limitation
D. Core instability and ankle mobility limitation
,2
C. Gluteus medius weakness and shoulder mobility limitation [CORRECT]
Rationale: Knees caving inward (valgus) during squatting typically indicates gluteus
medius weakness or hip stability limitation, while arms falling forward indicates
shoulder or thoracic mobility restriction. Heels remaining flat rules out ankle mobility
as the primary issue.
Correct Answer: C
Q3. While reviewing video of a client's overhead squat, the CFT Monitor notices the
client's lumbar spine goes into excessive extension at the bottom of the squat while
the arms remain vertical. The heels stay flat and knees track properly. What is the
primary corrective strategy?
A. Foam rolling the thoracic spine and performing wall slides
B. Activating the anterior core with dead bug progressions and coaching a neutral rib
position
C. Stretching the hip flexors and performing ankle mobilizations
D. Strengthening the gluteus medius with lateral band walks
B. Activating the anterior core with dead bug progressions and coaching a neutral rib
position [CORRECT]
Rationale: Excessive lumbar extension (anterior pelvic tilt/rib flare) at the bottom of a
squat indicates anterior core instability and poor lumbopelvic control. Dead bugs and
rib positioning cues address this directly. The other options target mobility or
stability issues not present in this movement signature.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A client demonstrates difficulty controlling scapular retraction during a single-
arm cable row, causing the shoulder to protract excessively at the end range. This
primarily indicates a deficiency in which foundational movement pattern?
,3
A. Push pattern
B. Pull pattern
C. Rotary stability pattern
D. Hinge pattern
B. Pull pattern [CORRECT]
Rationale: Scapular retraction control during rowing is a fundamental component of
the pull pattern. Inability to maintain retraction indicates weakness or motor control
deficits in the pull pattern, specifically involving the rhomboids, middle trapezius, and
latissimus dorsi.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. During a single-leg stance assessment, a 42-year-old client can stand on the
right leg for 10 seconds with eyes open but loses balance within 2 seconds when
closing their eyes. What does this result primarily indicate?
A. Vestibular dominance in balance strategy
B. Proprioceptive deficit requiring visual compensation
C. Hip flexor tightness on the stance leg
D. Gluteus maximus weakness
B. Proprioceptive deficit requiring visual compensation [CORRECT]
Rationale: The dramatic decrease in balance performance when visual input is
removed indicates the client relies heavily on vision to maintain stability, suggesting
a proprioceptive deficit in the ankle and/or hip. This is a common finding that
warrants proprioceptive training.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. During assessment, a client demonstrates adequate passive hip range of motion
(120 degrees flexion) but cannot maintain a neutral lumbar spine during a loaded hip
hinge, instead flexing through the lumbar spine. This best illustrates which principle?
, 4
A. Mobility limitation of the hip joint
B. Stability/motor control dysfunction of the core
C. Stability limitation of the hip joint
D. Mobility dysfunction of the lumbar spine
B. Stability/motor control dysfunction of the core [CORRECT]
Rationale: When passive range of motion is adequate but active movement control is
poor, this indicates a stability or motor control deficit rather than a true mobility
limitation. The client has hip mobility but lacks the core stability to maintain a neutral
spine during the hinge pattern.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. Video analysis of a client's overhead squat reveals the torso leans excessively
forward, the arms fall forward, and the heels lift off the ground. However, when the
client performs the squat holding a TRX for support, the heels remain flat and the
torso stays upright. What is the primary limitation?
A. Ankle dorsiflexion mobility
B. Hip flexor tightness
C. Thoracic spine mobility
D. Gluteus medius weakness
A. Ankle dorsiflexion mobility [CORRECT]
Rationale: When support (TRX) eliminates the forward lean and heel lift, this indicates
the limitation is not in the hips or thoracic spine but rather in ankle mobility. The TRX
provides anterior support that reduces the demand for ankle dorsiflexion, confirming
the ankle as the primary limitation.
Correct Answer: A
