NSG 2610 AH2 Exam 2 | Questions and Answers
2026 Update | 100% Correct – SOUTH
COLLEGE.
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient with acute decompensated heart failure. Which finding is most
concerning?
A) Jugular vein distention
B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
C) Crackles heard halfway up both lung fields
D) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
Answer: D
Explanation: SpO2 of 89% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention. JVD, edema,
and crackles are expected but less immediately life-threatening.
Question 2
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse knows this medication is
primarily used to:
A) Increase cardiac contractility
B) Reduce afterload
C) Decrease mortality in HFrEF
D) Promote diuresis
Answer: C
Explanation: Carvedilol (beta-blocker) reduces mortality and hospitalizations in heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) by blocking sympathetic overactivity.
Question 3
Which laboratory value is most specific for heart failure?
A) Troponin I
B) BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
C) CK-MB
D) Myoglobin
,Answer: B
Explanation: BNP is released from ventricular myocytes in response to increased wall tension
(volume overload). Elevated BNP is highly specific for heart failure.
Question 4
A patient with heart failure has a daily weight increase of 3 pounds in 24 hours. What is the
priority nursing action?
A) Restrict fluids to 1 L/day
B) Administer PRN furosemide as ordered
C) Increase the patient's activity level
D) Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid weight gain (2-3 lbs/day or 5 lbs/week) indicates fluid retention. Administer
PRN diuretic as ordered. Notification is appropriate but after intervention if no PRN order exists.
Question 5
A patient is receiving IV furosemide for acute heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A) Blood pressure increases from 100/60 to 130/80
B) Jugular vein distention becomes more visible
C) Crackles decrease and urine output increases
D) Heart rate increases from 80 to 110 bpm
Answer: C
Explanation: Furosemide reduces preload, decreasing pulmonary congestion (fewer crackles)
and increasing urine output.
Question 6
A patient with heart failure is started on lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential
adverse effect?
A) Dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Angioedema
D) All of the above
Answer: D
,Explanation: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) can cause dry cough, hyperkalemia (due to decreased
aldosterone), and angioedema (rare but life-threatening).
Question 7
A patient with left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit which respiratory symptom?
A) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
B) Orthopnea
C) Crackles
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to PND, orthopnea,
and crackles.
Question 8
A patient with right-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit:
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Jugular vein distention and hepatomegaly
C) Orthopnea
D) Crackles in lung bases
Answer: B
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion (JVD, peripheral edema,
hepatomegaly, ascites). Left-sided failure causes pulmonary symptoms.
Question 9
A patient with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates
digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate 72 bpm and regular
B) Serum digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL
C) Nausea, vomiting, and yellow halos around vision
D) Blood pressure 130/80
Answer: C
Explanation: Digoxin toxicity causes GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting), visual disturbances
(yellow/green halos), and bradycardia/dysrhythmias. Therapeutic level is 0.5-2.0 ng/mL.
, Question 10
A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. The nurse applies a nasal
cannula. Which flow rate is appropriate?
A) 1-2 L/min
B) 4-6 L/min
C) 8-10 L/min
D) 15 L/min
Answer: A
Explanation: In COPD, high-flow oxygen can suppress hypoxic drive. Start at 1-2 L/min to target
SpO2 88-92%.
Question 11
A patient with COPD exacerbation is placed on a Venturi mask at 40% FiO2. The nurse knows
the advantage of a Venturi mask is:
A) Delivers the highest possible oxygen concentration
B) Allows the patient to eat and drink while wearing it
C) Provides precise, consistent FiO2 regardless of respiratory pattern
D) Is most comfortable for long-term use
Answer: C
Explanation: The Venturi mask delivers a precise FiO2 (24-50%) via color-coded adapters,
making it ideal for COPD patients at risk for CO2 retention.
Question 12
Which finding in a patient with COPD requires immediate provider notification?
A) Barrel-shaped chest
B) Use of accessory muscles at rest
C) Clubbing of fingers
D) Chronic cough with sputum
Answer: B
Explanation: Use of accessory muscles at rest indicates severe respiratory distress. Barrel
chest, clubbing, and chronic cough are expected findings in advanced COPD.
Question 13
A patient with asthma is using an albuterol rescue inhaler daily. The nurse knows this indicates:
2026 Update | 100% Correct – SOUTH
COLLEGE.
Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient with acute decompensated heart failure. Which finding is most
concerning?
A) Jugular vein distention
B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities
C) Crackles heard halfway up both lung fields
D) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
Answer: D
Explanation: SpO2 of 89% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention. JVD, edema,
and crackles are expected but less immediately life-threatening.
Question 2
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse knows this medication is
primarily used to:
A) Increase cardiac contractility
B) Reduce afterload
C) Decrease mortality in HFrEF
D) Promote diuresis
Answer: C
Explanation: Carvedilol (beta-blocker) reduces mortality and hospitalizations in heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) by blocking sympathetic overactivity.
Question 3
Which laboratory value is most specific for heart failure?
A) Troponin I
B) BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
C) CK-MB
D) Myoglobin
,Answer: B
Explanation: BNP is released from ventricular myocytes in response to increased wall tension
(volume overload). Elevated BNP is highly specific for heart failure.
Question 4
A patient with heart failure has a daily weight increase of 3 pounds in 24 hours. What is the
priority nursing action?
A) Restrict fluids to 1 L/day
B) Administer PRN furosemide as ordered
C) Increase the patient's activity level
D) Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid weight gain (2-3 lbs/day or 5 lbs/week) indicates fluid retention. Administer
PRN diuretic as ordered. Notification is appropriate but after intervention if no PRN order exists.
Question 5
A patient is receiving IV furosemide for acute heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates
the medication is effective?
A) Blood pressure increases from 100/60 to 130/80
B) Jugular vein distention becomes more visible
C) Crackles decrease and urine output increases
D) Heart rate increases from 80 to 110 bpm
Answer: C
Explanation: Furosemide reduces preload, decreasing pulmonary congestion (fewer crackles)
and increasing urine output.
Question 6
A patient with heart failure is started on lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential
adverse effect?
A) Dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Angioedema
D) All of the above
Answer: D
,Explanation: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) can cause dry cough, hyperkalemia (due to decreased
aldosterone), and angioedema (rare but life-threatening).
Question 7
A patient with left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit which respiratory symptom?
A) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
B) Orthopnea
C) Crackles
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to PND, orthopnea,
and crackles.
Question 8
A patient with right-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit:
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Jugular vein distention and hepatomegaly
C) Orthopnea
D) Crackles in lung bases
Answer: B
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion (JVD, peripheral edema,
hepatomegaly, ascites). Left-sided failure causes pulmonary symptoms.
Question 9
A patient with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which finding indicates
digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate 72 bpm and regular
B) Serum digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL
C) Nausea, vomiting, and yellow halos around vision
D) Blood pressure 130/80
Answer: C
Explanation: Digoxin toxicity causes GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting), visual disturbances
(yellow/green halos), and bradycardia/dysrhythmias. Therapeutic level is 0.5-2.0 ng/mL.
, Question 10
A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. The nurse applies a nasal
cannula. Which flow rate is appropriate?
A) 1-2 L/min
B) 4-6 L/min
C) 8-10 L/min
D) 15 L/min
Answer: A
Explanation: In COPD, high-flow oxygen can suppress hypoxic drive. Start at 1-2 L/min to target
SpO2 88-92%.
Question 11
A patient with COPD exacerbation is placed on a Venturi mask at 40% FiO2. The nurse knows
the advantage of a Venturi mask is:
A) Delivers the highest possible oxygen concentration
B) Allows the patient to eat and drink while wearing it
C) Provides precise, consistent FiO2 regardless of respiratory pattern
D) Is most comfortable for long-term use
Answer: C
Explanation: The Venturi mask delivers a precise FiO2 (24-50%) via color-coded adapters,
making it ideal for COPD patients at risk for CO2 retention.
Question 12
Which finding in a patient with COPD requires immediate provider notification?
A) Barrel-shaped chest
B) Use of accessory muscles at rest
C) Clubbing of fingers
D) Chronic cough with sputum
Answer: B
Explanation: Use of accessory muscles at rest indicates severe respiratory distress. Barrel
chest, clubbing, and chronic cough are expected findings in advanced COPD.
Question 13
A patient with asthma is using an albuterol rescue inhaler daily. The nurse knows this indicates:
