ICVA NAVLE Exam 1
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+ LATEST 100%
GUARANTEED PASS
This is a case of HYPP, why would Equine Motor Neuron Disease be incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-EMND is a neurodegeneratie disorder and is associated with vitamin E deficiency
-EMND causes muscle atrophy and weakness, primarily affecting posture and gait over time.
However it does not typically cause acute episodes of weakness with fasciculation and prolapse
of the third eyelid like HYPP does. EMND is also more chronic in its progression, not episodic.
A 3-year old Percheron mare is undergoing routine dental evaluation. Physical examination
shows bilateral prolapse of the nictitating membrane and muscle fasciculations of the neck,
shoulders, and flank. During examination, the mare's hindlimbs give way, and she leans back in
a dog-sitting posture. Rectal temperature is 100.4 degrees F (38.0 degrees C), heart rate is 60
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min.
This is a case of HYPP, why would Exertional Rhabdomyolysis be incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-
ER is a condition where muscle damage occurs after exercise, resulting in muscle stiffness, pain
and potentially dark urine due to myoglobin release.
-While muscle fasciculations and hind limb weakness could suggest muscle damage, ER is
typically associated with exercise induced pain and stiffness rather than sudden collapse.
Additionally, prolapse of nictitating membranes is not a feature of ER
A 3-year old Percheron mare is undergoing routine dental evaluation. Physical examination
shows bilateral prolapse of the nictitating membrane and muscle fasciculations of the neck,
shoulders, and flank. During examination, the mare's hindlimbs give way, and she leans back in
a dog-sitting posture. Rectal temperature is 100.4 degrees F (38.0 degrees C), heart rate is 60
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min.
,This is a case of HYPP, why would Tetanus be incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-_Tetanus is caused
by neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani leading to rigid paralysis, muscle spasms and an
exaggerated response to stimuli
-Tetanus causes rigid muscle contraction and spasms rather than muscle weakness seen in this
case. Prolapse of the nictitating membrane can be seen in tetanus, but the muscle fasciculations
and collapse described are ore consistent with HYPP than the rigid paralysis of tetanus
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria. Which
of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) escheria coli
b) klebsiella spp
c) pasteurella multocida
d) pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) staphylococcus intermedius - CORRECT ANSWER-d) pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium commonly associated with
recurrent and chronic otitis externa in dogs, especially when standard treatment fails. It is
known for its resistance to many antibiotics and its ability to form biofilms, making infections
persistent and difficult to treat.
Clinical Relevance: Pseudomonas is often found in moist environments, which makes the ear
canal, especially in breeds prone to ear infections like Cocker Spaniels, a suitable environment
for the bacteria to thrive. The presence of large numbers of rod-shaped bacteria in purulent
discharge strongly suggests Pseudomonas.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
THe bacteria is likely pseudomonas aeuriginosa, why is E. coli likely incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-E. coli is a gram negative rod shaped bacterium more commonly associated with
,intestinal infections and urinary tract infections. While E.coli can sometimes cause otitis
externa, it is far less common than pseudomonas in chronic ear infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
The likely bacteria is pseudomonas , why is klebsiella incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-Klebsiella
are also gram negatie rods, but they are more commonly associated with infections of the
respiratory tract, urinary tract or wound infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
Pseudomonas is the likely bacteria, why is pasteurella multocida incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER--
Pasteurella multocida is a gram negative coccobacillus that is often associated with wound
infections from animal bites or scratches as well as resp infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
Pseudomonas is the likely bacteria, why is stapylococcus intermedius incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-it is a gram positive cocci, not rod shaped. It is a common cause of skin infections and
can cause otitis externa but the bacteria seen in the smear is decribed as rods, making
staphylococcus an unlikely culprit in this case.
A 10- year old spayed female cat is being evaluated because of a suspected injury to both
indlimbs, THe cat has been drinking and urinating excessively for the past two months. She is
walking in a plantigrade stance. Which of the following is hte most likely cause of this stance?
a) bilateral achilles tendon injury
b) diabetes mellitus
c) hyperadrenocorticism
d) hyperthyroidism
e) lumbar intervertebral disk disease - CORRECT ANSWER-b) diabetes mellitus
, Diabetes mellitus in cats can lead to a conditin called diabetic neuropathy, which is
characterized by weakness in the hindlimbs and a classic plantigrade stance. This is due to nerve
damage caused by prolonged high blood glucose levels.
-The cat has also been drinking and urinating excessiely for the pas two months, which is
consistent with polydipsia and polyuria, common signs of diabetes mellitus due to the osmotic
diuresis caused by high blood sugar levels.
A group of 6-10 week old lambs and their dams have crusted, proliferative lesions on the lips.
Physical examination shows underlying crusts consisting of raised granulation tissue. There are
no lesions on the buccal or lingual mucosa. THe majority of the lambs are affected, but only 5%
of the adult sheep are affected. Affected lambs are active and are nursing. The only adult goat
on the farm has similar lesions. THe horses, cattle, and pigs on the farm are unaffected. Which
of the following is the most appropriate management?
a) addition of organic iodine to trace mineralized salt
b) oral administration of griseofulvin
c) parenteral administration of oxytetracycline
d) parenteral administration of procaine penicillin G
e) observation - CORRECT ANSWER-E) observation
The clinical signs described- crusted, proliferatice lesions on the lips of young lambs and an
adult goat, are most consistent with contagious ecthym (orf), a viral disease caused by the
parpoxirus. Orf is also known as sore mouth or scabby mouth, and it is comon in young labs and
kids.
It is generally self limiting, meaning it resolves on its own without specific treatment.
The fact that there are no buccal or lingual lesions (the lesions are only around the outh, lips
and nostrils) is supportive of orf as orf does not typically affect the mucus membranes. The fact
that most lambs are affected but only a small percentage of adult sheep are affected also aligns
with orf as adults often have some immunity
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+ LATEST 100%
GUARANTEED PASS
This is a case of HYPP, why would Equine Motor Neuron Disease be incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-EMND is a neurodegeneratie disorder and is associated with vitamin E deficiency
-EMND causes muscle atrophy and weakness, primarily affecting posture and gait over time.
However it does not typically cause acute episodes of weakness with fasciculation and prolapse
of the third eyelid like HYPP does. EMND is also more chronic in its progression, not episodic.
A 3-year old Percheron mare is undergoing routine dental evaluation. Physical examination
shows bilateral prolapse of the nictitating membrane and muscle fasciculations of the neck,
shoulders, and flank. During examination, the mare's hindlimbs give way, and she leans back in
a dog-sitting posture. Rectal temperature is 100.4 degrees F (38.0 degrees C), heart rate is 60
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min.
This is a case of HYPP, why would Exertional Rhabdomyolysis be incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-
ER is a condition where muscle damage occurs after exercise, resulting in muscle stiffness, pain
and potentially dark urine due to myoglobin release.
-While muscle fasciculations and hind limb weakness could suggest muscle damage, ER is
typically associated with exercise induced pain and stiffness rather than sudden collapse.
Additionally, prolapse of nictitating membranes is not a feature of ER
A 3-year old Percheron mare is undergoing routine dental evaluation. Physical examination
shows bilateral prolapse of the nictitating membrane and muscle fasciculations of the neck,
shoulders, and flank. During examination, the mare's hindlimbs give way, and she leans back in
a dog-sitting posture. Rectal temperature is 100.4 degrees F (38.0 degrees C), heart rate is 60
beats/min, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min.
,This is a case of HYPP, why would Tetanus be incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-_Tetanus is caused
by neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani leading to rigid paralysis, muscle spasms and an
exaggerated response to stimuli
-Tetanus causes rigid muscle contraction and spasms rather than muscle weakness seen in this
case. Prolapse of the nictitating membrane can be seen in tetanus, but the muscle fasciculations
and collapse described are ore consistent with HYPP than the rigid paralysis of tetanus
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria. Which
of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) escheria coli
b) klebsiella spp
c) pasteurella multocida
d) pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) staphylococcus intermedius - CORRECT ANSWER-d) pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium commonly associated with
recurrent and chronic otitis externa in dogs, especially when standard treatment fails. It is
known for its resistance to many antibiotics and its ability to form biofilms, making infections
persistent and difficult to treat.
Clinical Relevance: Pseudomonas is often found in moist environments, which makes the ear
canal, especially in breeds prone to ear infections like Cocker Spaniels, a suitable environment
for the bacteria to thrive. The presence of large numbers of rod-shaped bacteria in purulent
discharge strongly suggests Pseudomonas.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
THe bacteria is likely pseudomonas aeuriginosa, why is E. coli likely incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-E. coli is a gram negative rod shaped bacterium more commonly associated with
,intestinal infections and urinary tract infections. While E.coli can sometimes cause otitis
externa, it is far less common than pseudomonas in chronic ear infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
The likely bacteria is pseudomonas , why is klebsiella incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER-Klebsiella
are also gram negatie rods, but they are more commonly associated with infections of the
respiratory tract, urinary tract or wound infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
Pseudomonas is the likely bacteria, why is pasteurella multocida incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER--
Pasteurella multocida is a gram negative coccobacillus that is often associated with wound
infections from animal bites or scratches as well as resp infections.
A 6 year old male cocker spaniel dog has recurrent otitis externa. Microscopic examination of a
smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod shaped bacteria.
Pseudomonas is the likely bacteria, why is stapylococcus intermedius incorrect - CORRECT
ANSWER-it is a gram positive cocci, not rod shaped. It is a common cause of skin infections and
can cause otitis externa but the bacteria seen in the smear is decribed as rods, making
staphylococcus an unlikely culprit in this case.
A 10- year old spayed female cat is being evaluated because of a suspected injury to both
indlimbs, THe cat has been drinking and urinating excessively for the past two months. She is
walking in a plantigrade stance. Which of the following is hte most likely cause of this stance?
a) bilateral achilles tendon injury
b) diabetes mellitus
c) hyperadrenocorticism
d) hyperthyroidism
e) lumbar intervertebral disk disease - CORRECT ANSWER-b) diabetes mellitus
, Diabetes mellitus in cats can lead to a conditin called diabetic neuropathy, which is
characterized by weakness in the hindlimbs and a classic plantigrade stance. This is due to nerve
damage caused by prolonged high blood glucose levels.
-The cat has also been drinking and urinating excessiely for the pas two months, which is
consistent with polydipsia and polyuria, common signs of diabetes mellitus due to the osmotic
diuresis caused by high blood sugar levels.
A group of 6-10 week old lambs and their dams have crusted, proliferative lesions on the lips.
Physical examination shows underlying crusts consisting of raised granulation tissue. There are
no lesions on the buccal or lingual mucosa. THe majority of the lambs are affected, but only 5%
of the adult sheep are affected. Affected lambs are active and are nursing. The only adult goat
on the farm has similar lesions. THe horses, cattle, and pigs on the farm are unaffected. Which
of the following is the most appropriate management?
a) addition of organic iodine to trace mineralized salt
b) oral administration of griseofulvin
c) parenteral administration of oxytetracycline
d) parenteral administration of procaine penicillin G
e) observation - CORRECT ANSWER-E) observation
The clinical signs described- crusted, proliferatice lesions on the lips of young lambs and an
adult goat, are most consistent with contagious ecthym (orf), a viral disease caused by the
parpoxirus. Orf is also known as sore mouth or scabby mouth, and it is comon in young labs and
kids.
It is generally self limiting, meaning it resolves on its own without specific treatment.
The fact that there are no buccal or lingual lesions (the lesions are only around the outh, lips
and nostrils) is supportive of orf as orf does not typically affect the mucus membranes. The fact
that most lambs are affected but only a small percentage of adult sheep are affected also aligns
with orf as adults often have some immunity
