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2026 ATI RN Predictor Exit Exam Practice Questions | 600+ NGN Case Scenarios with Rationales | NCLEX RN Review

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Prepare for the 2026 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam and the NCLEX-RN with this comprehensive test bank of 600+ practice questions, including Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) case scenarios, all with correct answers and detailed rationales. This study guide follows the ATI Predictor exam blueprint, covering every content area you need to pass on your first attempt. Key topics covered include: Section 1: Management of Care, Delegation & Safety (Questions 1–40) Client assignment (RN vs. LPN delegation, scope of practice) Infection control (C. diff, airborne, droplet, contact precautions, PPE removal order) Blood transfusion reactions (hemolytic, allergic, febrile; priority actions) Legal & ethical issues (informed consent, HIPAA, mandated reporting, advance directives) Restraints (monitoring, documentation, 15-minute checks) Disaster triage (color-coded tags, expectant category) Section 2: Health Promotion & Maintenance (Questions 41–60; 151–210) Prenatal care (folic acid 400–800 mcg, quickening, signs of labor, preterm labor) Developmental milestones (6-month rolling, 4-year circle drawing, 12-month weight triples) Newborn care (thermoregulation, skin-to-skin, car seat safety, safe sleep supine) Immunizations & disease prevention (HPV vaccine age 11–12) Growth & development (fine motor skills: pincer grasp, tower of blocks) Section 3: Pharmacological & Parenteral Therapies (Questions 61–90; 191–200; 271–330; 421–450) Antidotes (Vitamin K for warfarin, naloxone for opioids, protamine for heparin) High-alert medications (heparin, insulin, potassium chloride) Insulin mixing (clear before cloudy, NPH & regular) IV compatibility (phenytoin & normal saline only; dextrose incompatible) Clozapine REMS (ANC monitoring, sore throat = agranulocytosis) MAOI dietary restrictions (tyramine: aged cheese, smoked fish, cured meats) Digoxin toxicity (yellow halos, bradycardia, hypokalemia) Medication administration (IM ventrogluteal site, PPD intradermal 5–15 degrees) Section 4: Reduction of Risk Potential & Physiological Adaptation (Questions 91–130; 331–420) DKA management (fluids first, then insulin, monitor potassium) HHS vs. DKA (hyperosmolar, no ketones) COPD & oxygen-induced hypercapnia (target SpO2 88–92%) Autonomic dysreflexia (spinal cord injury T6+, bladder distention as trigger) PE, MI, heart failure (left vs. right, crackles, JVD, edema) Hepatic encephalopathy (asterixis, lactulose mechanism) PUD & GI bleeding (melena = upper GI bleed) Hyperkalemia (peaked T waves, calcium gluconate, insulin + glucose) AKI phases (oliguric: hyperkalemia; diuretic: hypovolemia) Section 5: Psychosocial Integrity & Mental Health (Questions 131–155; 211–270) Borderline personality disorder (DBT, self-harm, boundaries, consistent limits) Schizophrenia (EPS, clozapine, metabolic syndrome, command hallucinations) Bipolar disorder (mania vs. depression, lithium monitoring, quiet environment) Suicide precautions (1:1 observation for command hallucinations) OCD (ERP therapy), PTSD (flashbacks), GAD (simple concrete instructions) Alcohol withdrawal (benzodiazepines for seizures/DTs) Section 6: Maternity & Newborn Nursing (Questions 156–175) Postpartum hemorrhage (boggy fundus, bladder distention, fundal massage) Preeclampsia & magnesium sulfate (toxicity: RR12, absent DTRs, calcium gluconate antidote) Labor & delivery (tachysystole, stop oxytocin, epidural contraindications) RhoGAM (Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive newborn within 72 hours) Newborn hypoglycemia (jitteriness, poor feeding, hypothermia) Section 7: Pediatric Nursing (Questions 176–190) Croup (barking cough, stridor, racemic epinephrine, dexamethasone) Intussusception (currant jelly stools, intermittent severe pain) Celiac disease (gluten-free: avoid wheat, barley, rye) Type 1 diabetes (autoimmune, insulin deficiency) Appendicitis (rebound tenderness, guarding) RSV bronchiolitis (supportive care: suction, oxygen, hydration) Section 8: Ethical & Legal Issues (Questions 531–600) Informed consent (who can give consent, emancipated minor) HIPAA confidentiality (prisoners, minors, family members) Mandated reporting (child abuse, elder abuse, dependent adult abuse) Advance directives (living will, DNR, durable power of attorney for healthcare) End-of-life care (hospice, palliative care, death rattle, Cheyne-Stokes) Substance abuse & pain management (opioid use disorder, higher opioid doses needed) Perfect for: Nursing students preparing for the ATI RN Predictor Exit Exam, NCLEX-RN candidates, and practicing nurses seeking a comprehensive content review. Why this guide? All answers include rationales to help you understand the "why" behind the correct answer. Updated for 2026 ATI test plan (aligns with current NCLEX-RN test blueprint). Organized by content area for focused study and self-assessment. Includes NGN-style case scenarios to prepare for Next Generation NCLEX. Covers delegation, pharmacology, maternity, pediatrics, mental health, and end-of-life care. Uploaded by a verified top-tier nursing educator.

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI PN EXIT Exam 2026 Master Review |
Nursing Study Guide | NCLEX PN Prep | Digital,
Exams of Nursing

Section 1: Management of Care (Questions 1-90)

1. A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an
RN rather than a PN (LPN)?
A) A client with stable CHF receiving daily Lasix
B) A client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C) A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing insulin instruction
D) A client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings

Answer: C
Rationale: Client education (specifically initial instruction) falls under the scope of the
RN, as it requires complex assessment and evaluation of learning. PNs can reinforce
teaching but cannot perform initial patient teaching. Hanging blood requires RN
monitoring, but stable clients with PEG feedings or stable CHF are within PN scope .

2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A) A post-op day 2 client requesting pain medication for 4/10 pain
B) *A client with COPD with a new onset of confusion and BP 88/50*
C) A client with diabetes requesting a PRN snack due to hunger
D) A client with a fractured tibia asking for help to the bathroom

Answer: B
Rationale: New onset confusion combined with hypotension is a classic sign of shock
(sepsis, hemorrhage, or dehydration). This represents a change in neurological status
and hemodynamic instability, which is the priority. Airway, breathing, and circulation
(ABCs) come first .

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Which
of the following actions is the priority?
A) Ensure the client has signed the informed consent form
B) Review the client's laboratory results

,C) Verify the client's allergies
D) Administer preoperative medication as prescribed

Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a legal requirement before any invasive procedure. The
nurse's priority is to ensure consent is signed and witnessed, as failure to do so could
result in legal liability and cancellation of the procedure. The nurse does not obtain
consent but verifies it is present .

4. A PN is caring for four clients. Which client should the PN assess FIRST?
A) Post-op day 2 client requesting pain medication for 4/10 pain
B) *Client with COPD with new onset of confusion and BP 88/50*
C) Client with diabetes requesting PRN snack due to hunger
D) Client with fractured tibia asking for help to the bathroom

Answer: B
Rationale: New onset confusion plus hypotension indicates potential shock or hypoxia.
This represents an acute change in neurological status and hemodynamic instability.
The ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) framework prioritizes this client .

5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following
tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A) Administering an enema
B) Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
C) Measuring a client's vital signs
D) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer

Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is within the AP's scope of practice. The RN cannot
delegate tasks requiring nursing judgment, sterile technique (catheter insertion), or
client education .

6. A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to a long-term care facility. Which of the
following information should the nurse include in the transfer report? (Select all that
apply)
☐ A) The client's advance directive status
☐ B) The client's recent laboratory values
☐ C) The client's current medications

,☐ D) The client's preferred activities
☐ E) All of the above

Answer: E
Rationale: A comprehensive transfer report should include advance directive status,
recent lab values, current medications, and preferred activities to ensure continuity of
care and respect for the client's wishes .

7. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A) "Take ibuprofen for mild pain"
B) "Increase your intake of green leafy vegetables"
C) "Notify your provider if you notice bleeding gums"
D) "You can stop taking the medication if you feel well"

Answer: C
Rationale: Bleeding gums, easy bruising, dark tarry stools, or hematuria are signs of
excessive anticoagulation and should be reported immediately. Ibuprofen increases
bleeding risk. Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin .

8. A nurse is admitting a client who has a history of falls. Which of the following
interventions is the priority?
A) Place a fall risk identification wristband on the client
B) Instruct the client to call for assistance before getting out of bed
C) Ensure the bed alarm is functioning
D) Keep the client's personal belongings within reach

Answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to call for assistance is the most direct and proactive
intervention to prevent falls. While other measures are important, client education and
engagement is the priority .

9. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a
nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent
aspiration?
A) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours
B) *Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees*

, C) Check gastric residual volume every 2 hours
D) Change the feeding bag every 24 hours

Answer: B
*Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most effective
intervention to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings. This uses gravity to keep
gastric contents in the stomach .*

10. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following actions is most important to take prior to starting the transfusion?
A) Verify the client's blood type with a second nurse
B) Assess the client's baseline vital signs
C) Obtain the client's signed consent for the transfusion
D) Prime the blood tubing with normal saline

Answer: A
Rationale: Verification of blood type and client identification with a second licensed
nurse is the most critical safety step to prevent ABO incompatibility, which can be fatal .

11. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a total knee
replacement. The client refuses to use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
because "I don't want to become addicted." Which of the following responses by the
nurse is appropriate?
A) "You have a right to refuse pain medication, but you will be in pain"
B) "Addiction rarely occurs when pain medication is used appropriately for acute pain"
C) "I will call the provider to change your prescription to oral medication"
D) "You should try to bear the pain without medication"

Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should provide accurate information about pain management and
addiction risk. Addiction is rare with short-term use for acute pain. The nurse should
address the client's concern without being dismissive .

12. A nurse is reviewing a client's informed consent for a surgical procedure. Which of
the following clients is capable of giving informed consent?
A) A 17-year-old client who is married
B) A client who is under the influence of narcotic pain medication

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