PMHNP exam prep
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+ LATEST 100%
GUARANTEED PASS
A 16-year-old male patient is hospitalized for depression after attempting suicide by overdose.
Several days later, the patient reports feeling less depressed and having fewer suicidal thoughts,
but begins to threaten suicide "if things do not work out." Nursing staff members report feeling
resentful and manipulated, but fear for the patient's safety. The adult psychiatric and mental
health nurse practitioner's intervention is to
a)
:assist the staff in developing a treatment plan that limits contact with the patient to one person
per shift.
b)
develop a "no suicide" pact with the patient to decrease his helplessness and increase his
feelings of control.
c)
encourage the patient to express his fears of improving and being abandoned or of leaving the
,safe environment.
d)
increase supervision and restrict milieu participation to decrease the secondary gain from
manipulation. - CORRECT ANSWER-encourage the patient to express his fears of improving and
being abandoned or of leaving the
safe environment.
A female client complains of an intense, overwhelming fear of driving a car. The fear has
disrupted all elements of her life. She does not go to the grocery store unless someone
transports her, has relinquished her job, and has few social contacts. Her treatment plan
includes:
assertiveness training.
b)
biofeedback.
c)
stress management assistance.
d)
,systematic desensitization. - CORRECT ANSWER-
A patient with borderline personality disorder experiences intense anxiety when an adult
psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner goes on vacation. The best explanation for this
reaction is that the patient: - CORRECT ANSWER-has failed to develop clear ego boundaries.
b)
has failed to master object constancy.
c)
is employing primitive idealization.
d)
is employing projective identification.
An outpatient mental health clinic-based adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner
treats a 32-year-old patient who has diabetes and a major depressive disorder. The patient
reports an improved and stable mood on a trial of duloxetine (Cymbalta), but experiences
continued neuropathic pain. The nurse practitioner's initial intervention is to: - CORRECT
ANSWER-add gabapentin (Neurontin) to the treatment regimen.
b)
conduct additional diagnostic tests.
, c)
contact the patient's endocrinologist.
d)
increase the dosage of duloxetine (Cymbalta).
Among the following statements, which best describes the action of older typical
antipsychotic medications such as Haldol? - CORRECT ANSWER-They block dopamine receptors
in all four dopamine pathways.
b)
They decrease available amounts of serotonin and norepinephrine.
c)
They decrease the metabolism of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
d)
They selectively block reuptake of dopamine.
Which of the following structures provides for communication between the two hemispheres
of the brain? - CORRECT ANSWER-)
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+ LATEST 100%
GUARANTEED PASS
A 16-year-old male patient is hospitalized for depression after attempting suicide by overdose.
Several days later, the patient reports feeling less depressed and having fewer suicidal thoughts,
but begins to threaten suicide "if things do not work out." Nursing staff members report feeling
resentful and manipulated, but fear for the patient's safety. The adult psychiatric and mental
health nurse practitioner's intervention is to
a)
:assist the staff in developing a treatment plan that limits contact with the patient to one person
per shift.
b)
develop a "no suicide" pact with the patient to decrease his helplessness and increase his
feelings of control.
c)
encourage the patient to express his fears of improving and being abandoned or of leaving the
,safe environment.
d)
increase supervision and restrict milieu participation to decrease the secondary gain from
manipulation. - CORRECT ANSWER-encourage the patient to express his fears of improving and
being abandoned or of leaving the
safe environment.
A female client complains of an intense, overwhelming fear of driving a car. The fear has
disrupted all elements of her life. She does not go to the grocery store unless someone
transports her, has relinquished her job, and has few social contacts. Her treatment plan
includes:
assertiveness training.
b)
biofeedback.
c)
stress management assistance.
d)
,systematic desensitization. - CORRECT ANSWER-
A patient with borderline personality disorder experiences intense anxiety when an adult
psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner goes on vacation. The best explanation for this
reaction is that the patient: - CORRECT ANSWER-has failed to develop clear ego boundaries.
b)
has failed to master object constancy.
c)
is employing primitive idealization.
d)
is employing projective identification.
An outpatient mental health clinic-based adult psychiatric and mental health nurse practitioner
treats a 32-year-old patient who has diabetes and a major depressive disorder. The patient
reports an improved and stable mood on a trial of duloxetine (Cymbalta), but experiences
continued neuropathic pain. The nurse practitioner's initial intervention is to: - CORRECT
ANSWER-add gabapentin (Neurontin) to the treatment regimen.
b)
conduct additional diagnostic tests.
, c)
contact the patient's endocrinologist.
d)
increase the dosage of duloxetine (Cymbalta).
Among the following statements, which best describes the action of older typical
antipsychotic medications such as Haldol? - CORRECT ANSWER-They block dopamine receptors
in all four dopamine pathways.
b)
They decrease available amounts of serotonin and norepinephrine.
c)
They decrease the metabolism of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
d)
They selectively block reuptake of dopamine.
Which of the following structures provides for communication between the two hemispheres
of the brain? - CORRECT ANSWER-)
