SOUTH UNIVERSITY -- COLLEGE OF NURSING
NSG 6430 Women's Health Final Exam
Revised and Graded A -- Verified Questions and Answers
Women's Health Across the Lifespan
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
Questions Minutes Passing Score Recertification
100 120 80% Annual
Table of Contents
Section 1: Reproductive Health and Gynecology ............................ 17 Questions
Section 2: Obstetrics and Prenatal Care ............................ 17 Questions
Section 3: Contraception and Family Planning ............................ 17 Questions
Section 4: Breast Health and Menopause ............................ 16 Questions
Section 5: Sexually Transmitted Infections and Vaginitis ............................ 15 Questions
Section 6: Women's Health Across the Lifespan ............................ 18 Questions
Instructions
This practice exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions divided into 6 sections. You have 120 minutes to
complete the entire exam. Each question has four answer choices; select the one best answer. A passing
score of 80% (80/100 correct) is required. Read each scenario carefully before selecting your response.
Review the rationale provided for each question to reinforce key clinical concepts. This exam is aligned with
the NSG 6430 curriculum at South University, 2026/2027 Edition.
DISCLAIMER: This practice exam is an independent study resource and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or produced by
South University or its affiliated institutions. All questions are original creations designed to mirror exam-style formatting and
content areas.
, Reproductive Health and Gynecology -- 2026/2027 Edition
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 28-year-old nulligravida presents with chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and deep
dyspareunia. Laparoscopy reveals endometrial implants on the uterosacral ligaments and ovarian
endometriomas. The nurse practitioner should initiate which first-line pharmacological treatment for
this patient?
A. Combined oral contraceptives continuously
B. Intravenous antibiotics
C. High-dose progestin therapy
D. GnRH agonist alone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-line pharmacological treatment for endometriosis includes combined oral contraceptives or progestin
therapy. High-dose progestin therapy such as medroxyprogesterone or norethindrone suppresses endometrial
tissue and reduces pain. GnRH agonists are second-line due to side effects, and antibiotics are not indicated.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. A 35-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and an enlarged, irregular
uterus on bimanual examination. An ultrasound reveals multiple uterine leiomyomas, with the largest
measuring 5 cm. The patient desires future fertility. The nurse practitioner should recommend which
treatment option?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy
B. Myomectomy to preserve the uterus
C. Uterine artery embolization
D. Observation only without intervention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Myomectomy is the surgical treatment of choice for uterine fibroids in women who desire future fertility
because it removes the fibroids while preserving the uterus. Hysterectomy eliminates fertility. UAE may
compromise ovarian blood flow and is not ideal for women desiring pregnancy.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 52
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A 42-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding and a thickened endometrial stripe of
14 mm on transvaginal ultrasound. She has a BMI of 34 and a history of polycystic ovary syndrome.
The nurse practitioner should perform which diagnostic procedure next?
A. Repeat ultrasound in 6 months
B. CT scan of the pelvis
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Empiric progesterone therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Endometrial biopsy is indicated for women over 35 with abnormal uterine bleeding and risk factors for
endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity and PCOS. A 14 mm endometrial stripe in a woman with
intermenstrual bleeding and obesity warrants tissue sampling to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or
carcinoma.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. A 22-year-old woman presents with a firm, mobile, non-tender 2-cm breast mass. Ultrasound
shows a well-circumscribed solid mass with uniform echotexture. The nurse practitioner suspects a
fibroadenoma and should recommend which management approach?
A. Immediate surgical excision
B. Radiation therapy
C. Chemotherapy referral
D. Observation with clinical and ultrasound follow-up
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A fibroadenoma in a young woman with characteristic imaging findings can be managed conservatively with
clinical and ultrasound surveillance, as most remain stable or regress. Excision is reserved for enlarging or
symptomatic lesions. Chemotherapy and radiation are not indicated for benign fibroadenomas.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 52
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of amenorrhea, bilateral galactorrhea, and
headaches. Her prolactin level is 120 ng/mL. The nurse practitioner suspects a prolactinoma and
should order which diagnostic study?
A. Mammography
B. Thyroid ultrasound
C. MRI of the pituitary gland
D. Pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A significantly elevated prolactin level with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and headaches suggests a
prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). MRI of the pituitary gland is the gold standard imaging
study to visualize and characterize the tumor. The other studies do not evaluate the pituitary.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A 45-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, an enlarged uterus, and pressure
symptoms. She has completed childbearing and prefers a definitive treatment. The nurse practitioner
should discuss which surgical option?
A. Myomectomy
B. Uterine artery embolization
C. Endometrial ablation
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
For a woman who has completed childbearing and desires definitive treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids
with heavy bleeding, hysterectomy is the most definitive option. Myomectomy preserves fertility, endometrial
ablation is for bleeding without structural pathology, and UAE is less definitive.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 52
NSG 6430 Women's Health Final Exam
Revised and Graded A -- Verified Questions and Answers
Women's Health Across the Lifespan
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
Questions Minutes Passing Score Recertification
100 120 80% Annual
Table of Contents
Section 1: Reproductive Health and Gynecology ............................ 17 Questions
Section 2: Obstetrics and Prenatal Care ............................ 17 Questions
Section 3: Contraception and Family Planning ............................ 17 Questions
Section 4: Breast Health and Menopause ............................ 16 Questions
Section 5: Sexually Transmitted Infections and Vaginitis ............................ 15 Questions
Section 6: Women's Health Across the Lifespan ............................ 18 Questions
Instructions
This practice exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions divided into 6 sections. You have 120 minutes to
complete the entire exam. Each question has four answer choices; select the one best answer. A passing
score of 80% (80/100 correct) is required. Read each scenario carefully before selecting your response.
Review the rationale provided for each question to reinforce key clinical concepts. This exam is aligned with
the NSG 6430 curriculum at South University, 2026/2027 Edition.
DISCLAIMER: This practice exam is an independent study resource and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or produced by
South University or its affiliated institutions. All questions are original creations designed to mirror exam-style formatting and
content areas.
, Reproductive Health and Gynecology -- 2026/2027 Edition
Q1 Question 1 of 100
Q1. A 28-year-old nulligravida presents with chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and deep
dyspareunia. Laparoscopy reveals endometrial implants on the uterosacral ligaments and ovarian
endometriomas. The nurse practitioner should initiate which first-line pharmacological treatment for
this patient?
A. Combined oral contraceptives continuously
B. Intravenous antibiotics
C. High-dose progestin therapy
D. GnRH agonist alone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-line pharmacological treatment for endometriosis includes combined oral contraceptives or progestin
therapy. High-dose progestin therapy such as medroxyprogesterone or norethindrone suppresses endometrial
tissue and reduces pain. GnRH agonists are second-line due to side effects, and antibiotics are not indicated.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
Q2. A 35-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and an enlarged, irregular
uterus on bimanual examination. An ultrasound reveals multiple uterine leiomyomas, with the largest
measuring 5 cm. The patient desires future fertility. The nurse practitioner should recommend which
treatment option?
A. Total abdominal hysterectomy
B. Myomectomy to preserve the uterus
C. Uterine artery embolization
D. Observation only without intervention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Myomectomy is the surgical treatment of choice for uterine fibroids in women who desire future fertility
because it removes the fibroids while preserving the uterus. Hysterectomy eliminates fertility. UAE may
compromise ovarian blood flow and is not ideal for women desiring pregnancy.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 52
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
Q3. A 42-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding and a thickened endometrial stripe of
14 mm on transvaginal ultrasound. She has a BMI of 34 and a history of polycystic ovary syndrome.
The nurse practitioner should perform which diagnostic procedure next?
A. Repeat ultrasound in 6 months
B. CT scan of the pelvis
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Empiric progesterone therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Endometrial biopsy is indicated for women over 35 with abnormal uterine bleeding and risk factors for
endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity and PCOS. A 14 mm endometrial stripe in a woman with
intermenstrual bleeding and obesity warrants tissue sampling to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or
carcinoma.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
Q4. A 22-year-old woman presents with a firm, mobile, non-tender 2-cm breast mass. Ultrasound
shows a well-circumscribed solid mass with uniform echotexture. The nurse practitioner suspects a
fibroadenoma and should recommend which management approach?
A. Immediate surgical excision
B. Radiation therapy
C. Chemotherapy referral
D. Observation with clinical and ultrasound follow-up
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A fibroadenoma in a young woman with characteristic imaging findings can be managed conservatively with
clinical and ultrasound surveillance, as most remain stable or regress. Excision is reserved for enlarging or
symptomatic lesions. Chemotherapy and radiation are not indicated for benign fibroadenomas.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 52
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
Q5. A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of amenorrhea, bilateral galactorrhea, and
headaches. Her prolactin level is 120 ng/mL. The nurse practitioner suspects a prolactinoma and
should order which diagnostic study?
A. Mammography
B. Thyroid ultrasound
C. MRI of the pituitary gland
D. Pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A significantly elevated prolactin level with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and headaches suggests a
prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). MRI of the pituitary gland is the gold standard imaging
study to visualize and characterize the tumor. The other studies do not evaluate the pituitary.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
Q6. A 45-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, an enlarged uterus, and pressure
symptoms. She has completed childbearing and prefers a definitive treatment. The nurse practitioner
should discuss which surgical option?
A. Myomectomy
B. Uterine artery embolization
C. Endometrial ablation
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
For a woman who has completed childbearing and desires definitive treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids
with heavy bleeding, hysterectomy is the most definitive option. Myomectomy preserves fertility, endometrial
ablation is for bleeding without structural pathology, and UAE is less definitive.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 52
