Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC)
Examination Complete 100 Actual Exam Questions
With Detailed Solutions
Domain 1: Care Under Fire (CUF)
1. During Care Under Fire, a team member is shot in the thigh and
bleeding profusely. The immediate priority is:
A) Perform a full MARCH assessment
B) Apply direct pressure to the wound
C) Return fire and move to cover, then apply a tourniquet
D) Start an IV and give TXA
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In CUF, the priority is to neutralize the threat and move the
casualty to cover. Only then can life-saving interventions (tourniquet
for massive hemorrhage) be performed. Return fire/suppress threat
first to prevent additional casualties.
2. Which of the following is the recommended method for dragging a
casualty to safety under active fire?
A) Two-handed collar drag
B) One-handed shoulder drag while holding your weapon
C) Firefighter’s carry over the shoulder
D) Litter carry requiring two rescuers
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under fire, you must retain the ability to return fire. A
one-handed shoulder drag (or belt/vest drag) allows you to drag with
one hand and hold your weapon in the other. Litter carries require two
hands and are not appropriate in CUF.
3. In CUF, a tourniquet should be applied:
A) Only after wound packing fails
B) Directly over clothing to save time
C) High and tight on the affected limb, over clothing if necessary
D) Only to the distal part of the extremity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In CUF, speed is critical. Apply the tourniquet high on the
limb (2-3 inches above wound) directly over clothing if needed. Do not
waste time exposing the skin. Later in TFC, it can be reassessed and
moved to 2 inches above wound if possible.
4. You are the only responder and your partner is down in an open area
with active gunfire. Your first action is:
A) Run to your partner and start CPR
B) Suppress the threat by returning fire
C) Call for a tactical evacuation on the radio
D) Put on your ballistic helmet and plate carrier
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first rule of tactical care is “the best medicine on the
battlefield is fire superiority.” You must neutralize or suppress the
threat before providing care, otherwise you and the casualty may be
shot.
,5. Which of the following is NOT appropriate during the CUF phase?
A) Using a self-aid tourniquet on your own bleeding arm
B) Performing a needle decompression for tension pneumothorax
C) Dragging a casualty behind a concrete barrier
D) Yelling “GET DOWN” to nearby team members
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression requires fine motor skills, lighting,
and time – none of which are available during active fire. Tension
pneumothorax treatment belongs in Tactical Field Care. CUF only
allows: return fire, move to cover, and apply a tourniquet for
life-threatening hemorrhage.
Domain 2: Tactical Field Care (TFC) – MARCH Assessment
6. The “M” in MARCH stands for:
A) Manual airway
B) Massive hemorrhage
C) Medication administration
D) Monitor vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: M = Massive hemorrhage control. It is the first priority
because exsanguination is the most preventable cause of death in
tactical trauma. Tourniquets, wound packing, and junctional devices are
used.
7. During TFC, you have applied a tourniquet to a casualty’s thigh. Next
step according to MARCH is:
, A) Check airway (A)
B) Reassess bleeding (re-M)
C) Start IV access (C)
D) Cover the patient with a blanket (H)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MARCH is sequential: M → A (Airway) → R (Respirations) →
C (Circulation) → H (Hypothermia). After bleeding is controlled, you
move to airway assessment and management. Never skip airway for IV
access.
8. Which finding indicates a life-threatening airway obstruction in a
conscious casualty?
A) Speaking in full sentences
B) Stridor or hoarseness
C) Oxygen saturation of 92%
D) Coughing up small amount of blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor or hoarseness suggests partial airway obstruction,
often from facial/neck trauma or burn. This requires immediate
intervention (jaw thrust, NPA, or cricothyroidotomy). A patient
speaking full sentences typically has a patent airway.
9. A casualty has burns to the face and soot around the nostrils. What is
the priority airway intervention?
A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Prepare for surgical cricothyroidotomy
C) Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Examination Complete 100 Actual Exam Questions
With Detailed Solutions
Domain 1: Care Under Fire (CUF)
1. During Care Under Fire, a team member is shot in the thigh and
bleeding profusely. The immediate priority is:
A) Perform a full MARCH assessment
B) Apply direct pressure to the wound
C) Return fire and move to cover, then apply a tourniquet
D) Start an IV and give TXA
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In CUF, the priority is to neutralize the threat and move the
casualty to cover. Only then can life-saving interventions (tourniquet
for massive hemorrhage) be performed. Return fire/suppress threat
first to prevent additional casualties.
2. Which of the following is the recommended method for dragging a
casualty to safety under active fire?
A) Two-handed collar drag
B) One-handed shoulder drag while holding your weapon
C) Firefighter’s carry over the shoulder
D) Litter carry requiring two rescuers
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Under fire, you must retain the ability to return fire. A
one-handed shoulder drag (or belt/vest drag) allows you to drag with
one hand and hold your weapon in the other. Litter carries require two
hands and are not appropriate in CUF.
3. In CUF, a tourniquet should be applied:
A) Only after wound packing fails
B) Directly over clothing to save time
C) High and tight on the affected limb, over clothing if necessary
D) Only to the distal part of the extremity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In CUF, speed is critical. Apply the tourniquet high on the
limb (2-3 inches above wound) directly over clothing if needed. Do not
waste time exposing the skin. Later in TFC, it can be reassessed and
moved to 2 inches above wound if possible.
4. You are the only responder and your partner is down in an open area
with active gunfire. Your first action is:
A) Run to your partner and start CPR
B) Suppress the threat by returning fire
C) Call for a tactical evacuation on the radio
D) Put on your ballistic helmet and plate carrier
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first rule of tactical care is “the best medicine on the
battlefield is fire superiority.” You must neutralize or suppress the
threat before providing care, otherwise you and the casualty may be
shot.
,5. Which of the following is NOT appropriate during the CUF phase?
A) Using a self-aid tourniquet on your own bleeding arm
B) Performing a needle decompression for tension pneumothorax
C) Dragging a casualty behind a concrete barrier
D) Yelling “GET DOWN” to nearby team members
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression requires fine motor skills, lighting,
and time – none of which are available during active fire. Tension
pneumothorax treatment belongs in Tactical Field Care. CUF only
allows: return fire, move to cover, and apply a tourniquet for
life-threatening hemorrhage.
Domain 2: Tactical Field Care (TFC) – MARCH Assessment
6. The “M” in MARCH stands for:
A) Manual airway
B) Massive hemorrhage
C) Medication administration
D) Monitor vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: M = Massive hemorrhage control. It is the first priority
because exsanguination is the most preventable cause of death in
tactical trauma. Tourniquets, wound packing, and junctional devices are
used.
7. During TFC, you have applied a tourniquet to a casualty’s thigh. Next
step according to MARCH is:
, A) Check airway (A)
B) Reassess bleeding (re-M)
C) Start IV access (C)
D) Cover the patient with a blanket (H)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MARCH is sequential: M → A (Airway) → R (Respirations) →
C (Circulation) → H (Hypothermia). After bleeding is controlled, you
move to airway assessment and management. Never skip airway for IV
access.
8. Which finding indicates a life-threatening airway obstruction in a
conscious casualty?
A) Speaking in full sentences
B) Stridor or hoarseness
C) Oxygen saturation of 92%
D) Coughing up small amount of blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor or hoarseness suggests partial airway obstruction,
often from facial/neck trauma or burn. This requires immediate
intervention (jaw thrust, NPA, or cricothyroidotomy). A patient
speaking full sentences typically has a patent airway.
9. A casualty has burns to the face and soot around the nostrils. What is
the priority airway intervention?
A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Prepare for surgical cricothyroidotomy
C) Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
