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TMC Practice Questions with Correct Answers – Therapist Multiple Choice Exam Prep (210+ Q&A)

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Pass the NBRC TMC (Therapist Multiple Choice) exam on your first attempt with this comprehensive practice question bank of 210+ questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales. Covers all TMC content areas: Patient Assessment & Evaluation (auscultation wheezing crackles, pleural effusion diminished breath sounds, COPD barrel chest, pulmonary fibrosis Velcro crackles, post-bronchoscopy stridor emergency, pink frothy sputum pulmonary edema, early hypoxemia restlessness, late cyanosis, asthma PaCO2 rising impending failure, tactile fremitus decreased pneumothorax, tracheal shift tension pneumothorax, PE sudden pleuritic chest pain, Kerley B lines heart failure, tripod position COPD), Respiratory Conditions & Diseases (emphysema alveolar destruction, chronic bronchitis productive cough 3 months 2 years, asthma reversible obstruction, PCP ground glass CXR, alpha-1 antitrypsin panlobular emphysema, TB apical infiltrates, CAP Streptococcus pneumoniae, PPD positive past exposure, restrictive lung disease decreased TLC, ARDS Berlin criteria bilateral opacities P/F 300, PE hypoxemia hypocapnia, post-op atelectasis splinting, flail chest paradoxical movement, pulmonary hypertension exertional dyspnea, cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis, bronchiectasis permanent dilation, empyema air-fluid level, COPD exacerbation viral infection, pulmonary contusion patchy infiltrates), Pulmonary Function Testing (FEV1/FVC low obstruction, TLC low restriction, DLCO low emphysema, GOLD stage 4 FEV1 30%, bronchodilator response 12% 200mL, low MVV neuromuscular weakness, methacholine challenge asthma, poor effort falsely low FEV1/FVC, RV/TLC increased obstruction, flow-volume loop flattened inspiratory variable extrathoracic obstruction), ABG & Acid-Base (acute respiratory acidosis pH 7.28 PaCO2 60 HCO3 24, chronic respiratory acidosis pH 7.36 PaCO2 65 HCO3 38, metabolic acidosis with Winter's compensation, normal pH 7.35-7.45, metabolic alkalosis pH 7.48 PaCO2 45 HCO3 32, acute respiratory alkalosis pH 7.50 PaCO2 25 HCO3 22, metabolic alkalosis cause vomiting NG suction, high anion gap metabolic acidosis DKA, anion gap calculation Na - (Cl + HCO3), mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis pH 7.25 PaCO2 50 HCO3 20, Winter's formula expected PaCO2, chronic respiratory acidosis full compensation, hypoxemia PaO2 55 moderate, increased A-a gradient V/Q mismatch, P/F ratio 200 moderate ARDS, hypercapnia somnolent BiPAP, partially compensated chronic respiratory acidosis), Mechanical Ventilation (A/C volume ventilation, PSV patient-triggered flow-cycled, SIMV synchronized mandatory, plateau pressure 30 decrease tidal volume, minute ventilation affects PaCO2, pressure control increase pressure to increase Vt, Pplat target 30, ARDSnet low tidal volume 6 mL/kg, FiO2 and PEEP treat hypoxemia, PIP-Pplat increased resistance, initial Vt 6-8 mL/kg, increase PS for rapid shallow breathing, auto-PEEP obstructive disease, high rate increases auto-PEEP, high Pplat low compliance, initial PEEP 5, low pressure alarm circuit disconnect, pressure support bradypnea need backup rate, IBW calculation Devine formula, pressure control time-triggered time-cycled, increase PEEP to lower FiO2, increase minute ventilation for hypercapnia, increase I-time or PEEP to increase mean airway pressure, hypocapnia decrease rate, plateau pressure inspiratory hold), Airway Management (ETT cuff seal to prevent aspiration, cuff pressure 20-30 cmH2O, accidental extubation during turning, capnography gold standard for ETT placement, ETT depth 23 cm male 21 cm female, tracheostomy air leak underinflated cuff, MOV 20-25 cmH2O, tracheostomy obstruction remove inner cannula, laryngeal edema post-intubation, cannot ventilate cannot intubate LMA, foam cuff self-inflating, extubation readiness RSBI 105 NIF -25, RSBI = f/Vt, high RSBI not ready), Pharmacology (albuterol SABA, beta-2 agonist bronchodilation, ipratropium anticholinergic, fluticasone ICS, prednisone hyperglycemia weight gain, acetylcysteine mucolytic, dornase alfa CF, theophylline narrow therapeutic index, albuterol side effects tremor tachycardia, epinephrine anaphylaxis 0.3-0.5 mg IM 1:1000, tiotropium LAMA, montelukast leukotriene antagonist, epinephrine hypertension arrhythmias, cromolyn mast cell stabilizer, racemic epinephrine croup), Oxygen Therapy & Humidification (Venturi mask precise FiO2 28%, nasal cannula 3 L/min ~32%, non-rebreather mask FiO2 90-100%, tracheostomy gas temperature 32-34°C, home oxygen concentrator, non-rebreather high flow keep bag inflated, Venturi mask low flow causes lower FiO2, COPD hypercapnia high flow worsens CO2 retention, tracheostomy humidity deficit 34 mg/L, nasal cannula contraindicated nasal obstruction), Aerosol Therapy (optimal particle size 1-5 microns, SVN output and patient breathing affect dose, MDI with spacer improves deposition, Advair Diskus DPI, MDI spacer slow inhalation breath hold, DPI requires 30 L/min inspiratory flow, vibrating mesh nebulizer less residual volume, albuterol rescue therapy, formoterol LABA with ICS, nebulizer cleaning prevent Pseudomonas), CPR & Emergency (compression-ventilation ratio 30:2, compression rate 100-120/min, BLS first check breathing and pulse, compression depth at least 2 inches, after shock resume CPR 2 min, rescue breaths 1 every 5-6 sec, jaw thrust for trauma, ETCO2 during CPR 10 poor quality, minimize interruptions 10 sec, newborn HR 60 start compressions), Infection Control (airborne precautions TB N95, droplet precautions influenza, standard precautions all body fluids, Pseudomonas contaminated water, VAP prevention HOB elevation 30-45°, PPE donning gown first, COVID-19 airborne contact eye protection, bronchoscope high-level disinfection, ethylene oxide sterilization heat-sensitive, MDRO contact precautions gown gloves), Neonatal & Pediatric (RDS surfactant, apnea of prematurity 20 sec pause, croup barking cough racemic epinephrine dexamethasone, RSV bronchiolitis HFNC, newborn HR 100-160, epiglottitis drooling tripod do not examine throat, RSV most common bronchiolitis, MAS PPHN pneumothorax, CDH intubate NG tube do not bag, apnea of prematurity caffeine, epiglottitis vs croup, infant tidal volume 4-8 mL/kg, PPHN iNO), Home Care & Patient Education (oxygen safety no smoking, MDI technique slow inhalation breath hold, DPI forceful inhalation do not exhale into device, tracheostomy inner cannula clean 2-4 times daily, peak flow meter average highest of three), and Final Comprehensive Review. Perfect for TMC, CRT, RRT board exam preparation, respiratory therapy program finals, and clinical simulation review.

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1|Page


# TMC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS## BEST REVIEW | THERAPIST
MULTIPLE CHOICE EXAM PREP### HIGH-
YIELD CONTENT | GRADED A+ | FIRST TIME
PASS



## Table of Contents


1. **Patient Assessment & Evaluation** (25 questions)
2. **Respiratory Conditions & Diseases** (20 questions)
3. **Pulmonary Function Testing (PFT)** (10 questions)
4. **Arterial Blood Gases (ABG) & Acid-Base Balance** (20 questions)
5. **Mechanical Ventilation** (25 questions)
6. **Airway Management** (15 questions)
7. **Pharmacology for Respiratory Care** (15 questions)
8. **Oxygen Therapy & Humidification** (10 questions)
9. **Aerosol Therapy & Bronchodilators** (10 questions)
10. **Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) & Emergency Care** (10 questions)
11. **Infection Control & Safety** (10 questions)
12. **Neonatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care** (15 questions)
13. **Home Care & Patient Education** (5 questions)
14. **Final Comprehensive Review** (20 questions)

,2|Page


## Section 1: Patient Assessment & Evaluation (25 Questions)


**1.** A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD is admitted with
increased dyspnea. Which finding is most indicative of impending
respiratory failure?
A. Heart rate 90 bpm
B. Respiratory rate 28 breaths/min
C. Use of accessory muscles and paradoxical abdominal breathing
D. Oxygen saturation 90% on room air


**Correct Answer: C**


*Rationale:* Paradoxical abdominal breathing (abdominal wall moves
inward during inspiration) indicates diaphragmatic fatigue and
impending respiratory failure. Accessory muscle use alone is common in
COPD, but paradoxical motion is a late, ominous sign.


---


**2.** During auscultation, you hear high-pitched, musical sounds
primarily during expiration. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Bronchospasm (wheezing)
C. Pleural effusion

,3|Page


D. Atelectasis


**Correct Answer: B**


*Rationale:* Wheezing is a high-pitched musical sound caused by
airflow through narrowed airways, typically heard during expiration in
bronchospasm (asthma, COPD).


---


**3.** A patient presents with crackles that are fine, high-pitched, and
heard at end-inspiration. This is most consistent with:
A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary fibrosis (interstitial lung disease)
C. COPD
D. Asthma


**Correct Answer: B**


*Rationale:* Fine, late-inspiratory crackles (Velcro crackles) are
characteristic of restrictive lung diseases such as pulmonary fibrosis and
interstitial lung disease. Coarse crackles are heard in pneumonia and
bronchitis.

, 4|Page


---


**4.** Which breath sound is most commonly heard in a patient with
pleural effusion?
A. Bronchial breath sounds
B. Diminished or absent breath sounds over the effusion
C. Wheezing
D. Stridor


**Correct Answer: B**


*Rationale:* Pleural effusion causes diminished or absent breath sounds
due to fluid separating the lung from the chest wall. Egophony (E-to-A
change) may be heard at the fluid-air interface.


---


**5.** A patient has a barrel chest, prolonged expiration, and digital
clubbing. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism

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