Exam | Complete Questions & Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Total Questions: 50 | Time: 90 min | Pass: 80%
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Therapeutic Modalities and Exercises | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Patient Handling, Transfer Techniques, and Ambulation | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Infection Control, Safety, and Professional Conduct | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Documentation, Ethics, and Scope of Practice | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, AND MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY Q1 – Q10
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Question 1 of 50
A physical therapy aide is observing a 45-year-old patient performing shoulder
abduction exercises in the clinic gym. The patient lifts the arm laterally away from the
body to 90 degrees against gravity. The supervising PT asks the aide to identify the
prime mover responsible for this motion.
A. Pectoralis major
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Deltoid ✓ CORRECT
D. Trapezius
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The deltoid muscle, specifically its middle fibers, serves as the prime mover
for shoulder abduction, lifting the arm away from the body's midline. The pectoralis
,major is a strong adductor and internal rotator, which makes it a tempting choice
because it is a major shoulder muscle, but it performs the opposite action. Aides who
confuse prime movers with synergists often misidentify muscle functions during
exercise observation.
Question 2 of 50
A 67-year-old patient with osteoarthritis of the knee is having difficulty achieving full
extension. During range-of-motion assessment, the PT notes a 15-degree flexion
contracture that has developed over the past year. The aide is asked which tissue is
primarily affected by the degenerative changes causing this limitation.
A. Articular cartilage ✓ CORRECT
B. Synovial membrane
C. Ligamentum patellae
D. Meniscus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteoarthritis primarily involves the progressive breakdown of articular
cartilage, leading to joint space narrowing, pain, and contractures that restrict motion.
The synovial membrane is tempting because it becomes inflamed in arthritic conditions,
but synovial inflammation is secondary to cartilage loss rather than the primary
degenerative tissue. Cartilage has no blood supply, so once it degrades, the body cannot
regenerate it effectively, which is why contractures become permanent without
aggressive intervention.
Question 3 of 50
During a chart review, a 28-year-old aide encounters a note stating that a patient has
"hemiparesis following a CVA." The patient is scheduled for gait training later that
morning. The aide needs to understand the terminology to prepare appropriate assistive
equipment.
,A. Complete paralysis on one side of the body
B. Loss of sensation on one side of the body
C. Weakness on one side of the body ✓ CORRECT
D. Incoordination on one side of the body
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hemiparesis denotes weakness on one side of the body, whereas hemiplegia
indicates complete paralysis, and the distinction is critical for selecting the correct
assistive device and support level. Complete paralysis is a common misconception
because the suffix sounds similar to other paralysis terms, but paresis specifically
means partial weakness. Aides working with stroke patients must recognize this
difference because hemiparetic patients can often bear some weight and participate
actively in transfers, unlike hemiplegic patients who may require total support.
Question 4 of 50
A 32-year-old weightlifter presents with radiating pain down the lateral leg and dorsal
foot after a deadlift injury. The PT suspects an L4-L5 disc herniation compressing a
nerve root. The aide is reviewing lumbar anatomy to anticipate which dermatome and
myotome will be tested.
A. L3 nerve root
B. L5 nerve root ✓ CORRECT
C. L4 nerve root
D. S1 nerve root
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An L4-L5 disc herniation most commonly compresses the L5 nerve root,
producing symptoms along the lateral leg and dorsum of the foot, including weakness
in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension. The L4 root is tempting because the disc
level shares the same number, but the exiting nerve root at L4-L5 is actually L5 due to
the anatomical course of the spinal nerves. This counterintuitive numbering is a
, frequent source of confusion in the clinic when aides set up sensory testing or nerve
gliding exercises.
Question 5 of 50
A 58-year-old patient is three weeks post-operative from an ACL reconstruction using a
patellar tendon autograft. The PT explains that the graft is entering a phase where
fibroblasts are actively depositing collagen to bridge the graft site. The aide is asked to
identify this healing phase.
A. Hemostasis
B. Inflammatory
C. Remodeling
D. Proliferative ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The proliferative phase of tissue healing, typically occurring from days 4
through 24 post-injury, is characterized by fibroblast migration and new collagen
deposition that begins to fill the wound gap. The inflammatory phase is tempting
because it overlaps early in the timeline, but by week three, the acute inflammatory
response has largely subsided and given way to tissue building. Aides supporting
post-surgical patients need to recognize this phase because excessive loading during
proliferative healing can disrupt fragile collagen cross-linking and compromise graft
integrity.
Question 6 of 50
A 24-year-old aide is documenting a therapeutic exercise session in which a patient
performed side-lying hip abduction lifts. The PT asks the aide to record the anatomical
plane in which this movement primarily occurs to maintain consistency in the electronic
medical record.