ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive
Assessment Form A & B 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
Complete Questions & Rationales | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Management of Care and Safety | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Health Promotion and Psychosocial Integrity | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Reduction of Risk and Physiological Adaptation | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Comprehensive Capstone Integration (Forms A & B Combined) | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE AND SAFETY Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 78-year-old client with a stage III sacral pressure injury is admitted to the
medical-surgical unit. The nurse is assigning tasks to the assistive personnel (AP) and
licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the beginning of the shift. The nurse needs to
determine which task is appropriate to delegate to the AP.
A. Perform a sterile dressing change on the sacral wound using the physician's orders.
B. Document the wound's appearance, including drainage color and odor, in the
electronic health record.
C. Reposition the client every two hours and apply a moisture barrier cream to intact
skin. ✓ CORRECT
D. Assess the wound for signs of infection and notify the provider of any changes.
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning and applying barrier cream to intact skin are standard,
nonsterile interventions within the AP's scope of practice and do not require clinical
judgment or assessment. Option A is tempting because wound care seems routine, but
sterile dressing changes require knowledge of aseptic technique and wound
assessment that exceed AP scope. Charge nurses who delegate appropriately protect
both patient safety and their own licenses by matching task complexity to caregiver
training.
Question 2 of 50
A 42-year-old postoperative client is receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with
morphine following an open bowel resection. The nurse enters the room and finds the
client unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute and oxygen
saturation of 82%. The nurse has already activated the rapid response team.
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push and prepare for intubation.
B. Stimulate the client verbally, apply a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min, and administer
naloxone per protocol. ✓ CORRECT
C. Stop the PCA infusion, obtain a stat arterial blood gas, and wait for the provider's
order before giving reversal.
D. Increase the PCA basal rate to improve sedation and reduce respiratory effort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate airway support with high-flow oxygen and naloxone administration
per protocol is the priority for opioid-induced respiratory depression, while verbal
stimulation may temporarily improve respiratory drive. Option C delays life-saving
reversal by waiting for orders, but naloxone is a standing protocol medication for
PCA-related respiratory depression in most facilities. Nurses managing PCA pumps
must keep naloxone at the bedside and act within seconds, not minutes, when
respiratory rates drop below 8.
,Question 3 of 50
A 65-year-old client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is being discharged home
with metformin and a glucometer. The nurse is providing discharge teaching and needs
to ensure the client understands hypoglycemia prevention. The client lives alone and
has mild cognitive impairment.
A. Instruct the client to skip the metformin dose if a meal is missed to prevent low blood
sugar.
B. Teach the client to check blood glucose before every meal and at bedtime, keeping a
written log.
C. Provide a simplified teaching sheet with large print, teach-back verification, and
arrange a home health referral. ✓ CORRECT
D. Recommend the client move to an assisted living facility immediately due to
cognitive impairment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with mild cognitive impairment require adapted teaching materials,
teach-back validation, and post-discharge support such as home health to ensure safe
self-management without unnecessary institutionalization. Option B is standard
diabetes education but does not address the cognitive barrier that makes complex
logging unrealistic for this client. Discharge planners often discover that clients who
nod during teaching cannot actually demonstrate the skill once they are home, which is
why teach-back and home follow-up are nonnegotiable for vulnerable populations.
Question 4 of 50
A 34-year-old client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation after a
recent divorce. The nurse is developing a plan of care and needs to prioritize the first
nursing intervention.
A. Encourage the client to identify three personal strengths and coping strategies.
, B. Establish a therapeutic relationship through open-ended communication about the
divorce.
C. Initiate one-to-one continuous observation and remove all potential self-harm objects
from the room. ✓ CORRECT
D. Administer the prescribed SSRI and schedule a follow-up psychiatric evaluation in 48
hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the foundational priority for any client with active suicidal ideation,
and immediate environmental modification plus observation must precede all other
therapeutic or pharmacological interventions. Option B is a valid psychiatric nursing
intervention but is inappropriate as a first step when the client remains at imminent risk
for self-harm. Psychiatric nurses know that no amount of rapport-building matters if the
client has access to a means of suicide during the first hours of admission.
Question 5 of 50
A nurse on a busy telemetry unit is caring for four clients. The charge nurse asks the
primary nurse to prioritize which client should be assessed first after receiving the
handoff report.
A. A 58-year-old client with atrial fibrillation who is scheduled for cardioversion in two
hours.
B. A 72-year-old client with heart failure who gained 1.2 kg overnight and has new
bilateral crackles.
C. A 45-year-old client admitted six hours ago with chest pain whose troponin just
returned at 0.08 ng/mL. ✓ CORRECT
D. A 60-year-old client post-PACU from a cardiac catheterization who has a stable groin
dressing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A troponin of 0.08 ng/mL above the institutional cutoff indicates acute
myocardial injury requiring immediate assessment, ECG, and provider notification to rule
out evolving MI. Option B represents significant fluid overload that needs attention, but
Assessment Form A & B 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
Complete Questions & Rationales | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Management of Care and Safety | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Health Promotion and Psychosocial Integrity | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Reduction of Risk and Physiological Adaptation | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Comprehensive Capstone Integration (Forms A & B Combined) | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE AND SAFETY Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 78-year-old client with a stage III sacral pressure injury is admitted to the
medical-surgical unit. The nurse is assigning tasks to the assistive personnel (AP) and
licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the beginning of the shift. The nurse needs to
determine which task is appropriate to delegate to the AP.
A. Perform a sterile dressing change on the sacral wound using the physician's orders.
B. Document the wound's appearance, including drainage color and odor, in the
electronic health record.
C. Reposition the client every two hours and apply a moisture barrier cream to intact
skin. ✓ CORRECT
D. Assess the wound for signs of infection and notify the provider of any changes.
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning and applying barrier cream to intact skin are standard,
nonsterile interventions within the AP's scope of practice and do not require clinical
judgment or assessment. Option A is tempting because wound care seems routine, but
sterile dressing changes require knowledge of aseptic technique and wound
assessment that exceed AP scope. Charge nurses who delegate appropriately protect
both patient safety and their own licenses by matching task complexity to caregiver
training.
Question 2 of 50
A 42-year-old postoperative client is receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with
morphine following an open bowel resection. The nurse enters the room and finds the
client unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute and oxygen
saturation of 82%. The nurse has already activated the rapid response team.
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push and prepare for intubation.
B. Stimulate the client verbally, apply a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min, and administer
naloxone per protocol. ✓ CORRECT
C. Stop the PCA infusion, obtain a stat arterial blood gas, and wait for the provider's
order before giving reversal.
D. Increase the PCA basal rate to improve sedation and reduce respiratory effort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immediate airway support with high-flow oxygen and naloxone administration
per protocol is the priority for opioid-induced respiratory depression, while verbal
stimulation may temporarily improve respiratory drive. Option C delays life-saving
reversal by waiting for orders, but naloxone is a standing protocol medication for
PCA-related respiratory depression in most facilities. Nurses managing PCA pumps
must keep naloxone at the bedside and act within seconds, not minutes, when
respiratory rates drop below 8.
,Question 3 of 50
A 65-year-old client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is being discharged home
with metformin and a glucometer. The nurse is providing discharge teaching and needs
to ensure the client understands hypoglycemia prevention. The client lives alone and
has mild cognitive impairment.
A. Instruct the client to skip the metformin dose if a meal is missed to prevent low blood
sugar.
B. Teach the client to check blood glucose before every meal and at bedtime, keeping a
written log.
C. Provide a simplified teaching sheet with large print, teach-back verification, and
arrange a home health referral. ✓ CORRECT
D. Recommend the client move to an assisted living facility immediately due to
cognitive impairment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with mild cognitive impairment require adapted teaching materials,
teach-back validation, and post-discharge support such as home health to ensure safe
self-management without unnecessary institutionalization. Option B is standard
diabetes education but does not address the cognitive barrier that makes complex
logging unrealistic for this client. Discharge planners often discover that clients who
nod during teaching cannot actually demonstrate the skill once they are home, which is
why teach-back and home follow-up are nonnegotiable for vulnerable populations.
Question 4 of 50
A 34-year-old client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation after a
recent divorce. The nurse is developing a plan of care and needs to prioritize the first
nursing intervention.
A. Encourage the client to identify three personal strengths and coping strategies.
, B. Establish a therapeutic relationship through open-ended communication about the
divorce.
C. Initiate one-to-one continuous observation and remove all potential self-harm objects
from the room. ✓ CORRECT
D. Administer the prescribed SSRI and schedule a follow-up psychiatric evaluation in 48
hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the foundational priority for any client with active suicidal ideation,
and immediate environmental modification plus observation must precede all other
therapeutic or pharmacological interventions. Option B is a valid psychiatric nursing
intervention but is inappropriate as a first step when the client remains at imminent risk
for self-harm. Psychiatric nurses know that no amount of rapport-building matters if the
client has access to a means of suicide during the first hours of admission.
Question 5 of 50
A nurse on a busy telemetry unit is caring for four clients. The charge nurse asks the
primary nurse to prioritize which client should be assessed first after receiving the
handoff report.
A. A 58-year-old client with atrial fibrillation who is scheduled for cardioversion in two
hours.
B. A 72-year-old client with heart failure who gained 1.2 kg overnight and has new
bilateral crackles.
C. A 45-year-old client admitted six hours ago with chest pain whose troponin just
returned at 0.08 ng/mL. ✓ CORRECT
D. A 60-year-old client post-PACU from a cardiac catheterization who has a stable groin
dressing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A troponin of 0.08 ng/mL above the institutional cutoff indicates acute
myocardial injury requiring immediate assessment, ECG, and provider notification to rule
out evolving MI. Option B represents significant fluid overload that needs attention, but
