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ATI FUNDAMENTALS CMS PROCTORED ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | 70 Complete Questions | Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass the ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Actual Exam on your first attempt with this complete 2026/2027 guide featuring 70 complete questions with verified answers and detailed rationales. This A+ Graded resource contains 70 actual exam questions with verified answers and detailed rationales for the ATI Content Mastery Series Fundamentals Proctored Exam. Each question mirrors the official exam format, covering all key domains including **safe and effective care environment (advance directives, client rights, confidentiality (HIPAA), delegation and supervision (5 rights of delegation), legal and ethical issues (tort law, negligence, malpractice, battery, assault, false imprisonment, informed consent, refusal of treatment, advance directives (living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare), Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders, organ donation, incident reports, risk management, quality improvement, nursing process (assessment, analysis/diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation), prioritization (Maslow's hierarchy of needs, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), safety and risk reduction, acute vs chronic, unstable vs stable, emergent vs non-emergent, nursing judgment, clinical reasoning, critical thinking, triage principles (emergent, urgent, non-urgent, expectant), resource management, continuity of care, interdisciplinary collaboration, consultation and referral, information technology (electronic health records, computerized provider order entry, bar code medication administration, telehealth)), health promotion and maintenance (aging process across the lifespan: infancy, early childhood, preschool, school-age, adolescence, early adulthood, middle adulthood, late adulthood; developmental theories: Erikson's psychosocial stages (trust vs mistrust, autonomy vs shame/doubt, initiative vs guilt, industry vs inferiority, identity vs role confusion, intimacy vs isolation, generativity vs stagnation, ego integrity vs despair), Piaget's cognitive stages (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational), Kohlberg's moral stages (pre-conventional, conventional, post-conventional); health promotion programs and wellness models, disease prevention: primary, secondary, tertiary prevention; health screening guidelines by age and gender (blood pressure, cholesterol, blood glucose, mammogram, Pap smear, colonoscopy, prostate exam, bone density, vision, hearing, dental), immunization schedules (CDC recommendations: hepatitis B, rotavirus, DTaP/Tdap, Hib, PCV, IPV, influenza, MMR, varicella, hepatitis A, HPV, meningococcal, pneumococcal, shingles, COVID-19), lifestyle choices and health behaviors (nutrition, exercise, sleep, smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, substance abuse prevention, stress reduction, weight management, sun protection), prenatal care and fetal development (trimesters, prenatal vitamins (folic acid), common discomforts, danger signs during pregnancy, fetal development milestones, prenatal testing (ultrasound, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, non-stress test, biophysical profile), childbirth education, breastfeeding benefits and techniques, postpartum care and assessment, newborn screening (PKU, hearing, congenital heart defects), self-care education (hygiene, medication self-administration, chronic disease self-management, home safety, fall prevention, poison prevention, firearm safety), stress management techniques (relaxation, deep breathing, meditation, mindfulness, guided imagery, biofeedback, exercise, social support, time management, assertiveness training), family dynamics (family structures (nuclear, extended, single-parent, blended, adoptive, foster, same-sex, grandparent-led), family functions, family life cycle, parenting styles (authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, uninvolved), sibling rivalry, role changes, family coping, family assessment tools (ecomap, genogram), family therapy, support groups, community resources, prevention of disease and illness (hand hygiene, respiratory etiquette, safe food handling, safe water, vector control, waste disposal, sanitation, safe sex practices, needle exchange programs, harm reduction), Healthy People 2030 goals and objectives, national health initiatives, and health literacy), psychosocial integrity (abuse and neglect: physical abuse, emotional abuse, sexual abuse, financial abuse, neglect (physical, emotional, educational, medical), child abuse (shaken baby syndrome, failure to thrive, Munchausen syndrome by proxy), elder abuse, intimate partner violence, warning signs, screening tools, mandatory reporting laws, legal obligations of healthcare professionals, protective services referral, safety planning, trauma-informed care; behavioral interventions: positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, extinction, modeling, shaping, chaining, token economies, contingency contracting, systematic desensitization, exposure therapy, aversion therapy, biofeedback, cognitive restructuring, cognitive behavioral therapy principles, dialectical behavior therapy principles, motivational interviewing stages (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, relapse), crisis intervention phases (assessment, identification, planning, intervention, resolution, post-crisis follow-up), crisis intervention models (Roberts' seven-stage model, ABC model of crisis intervention), de-escalation techniques (verbal de-escalation, non-verbal communication, active listening, validation, calming strategies, offer choices, set limits, provide space, call for help); coping mechanisms: adaptive (problem-solving, seeking social support, positive reframing, acceptance, humor, spirituality, exercise, relaxation, journaling, time management) vs maladaptive (denial, displacement, projection, rationalization, regression, repression, suppression, reaction formation, sublimation, intellectualization, dissociation, acting out, passive aggression, somatization, substance use, self-harm, avoidance, wishful thinking); crisis intervention (suicidal ideation assessment, suicide risk factors (SAD PERSONS scale), protective factors, suicide precautions (constant observation, no-harm contracts, safe environment, remove harmful objects), suicide screening tools (PHQ-9 item 9, Columbia-Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS)), suicide prevention protocols, crisis hotlines (988 Suicide and Crisis Lifeline), emergency psychiatric evaluation, involuntary commitment criteria (danger to self, danger to others, gravely disabled), seizure precautions, elopement risk assessment, wandering precautions, restraint and seclusion (legal and ethical guidelines, types of restraints (physical, chemical, environmental), alternatives to restraints, monitoring requirements, documentation requirements, time limits, patient rights, least restrictive environment); end-of-life care (hospice care philosophy (comfort-focused, no curative treatment, interdisciplinary team, bereavement support), eligibility criteria (prognosis of 6 months or less), Medicare hospice benefit, levels of hospice care (routine home care, continuous home care, inpatient respite care, general inpatient care), palliative care philosophy (symptom management, quality of life, curative treatment may continue), advance care planning (advance directives, living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare, POLST/MOLST forms), goals of care conversations (SPIKES protocol, REMAP framework), do not resuscitate (DNR) orders, do not intubate (DNI) orders, allow natural death (AND), comfort care orders, symptom management at end of life (pain (opioids, adjuvants), dyspnea (oxygen, opioids, positioning), nausea/vomiting (antiemetics), constipation (laxatives, bowel regimen), delirium (antipsychotics, environmental interventions), anxiety (benzodiazepines), depression (antidepressants), fatigue (energy conservation, stimulants), anorexia/cachexia (appetite stimulants, nutritional support), secretions (anticholinergics, suctioning), terminal agitation (sedation), terminal restlessness, myoclonus, dysphagia, skin breakdown (pressure ulcer prevention, comfort care turns), spiritual care and support (chaplain referral, spiritual assessment (FICA, HOPE, SPIRIT)), cultural considerations at end of life (death rituals, beliefs about afterlife, family involvement, truth-telling preferences), grief and loss (types of grief: normal, anticipatory, complicated, disenfranchised, chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked; stages of grief (Kübler-Ross): denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance; Worden's four tasks of mourning, Rando's six R's of mourning, bereavement support, memorial services, staff support (grief rounds, debriefing, employee assistance programs), emotional intelligence, self-care for nurses (compassion fatigue, burnout prevention, secondary traumatic stress, resilience, mindfulness, peer support, counseling resources); mental health concepts across the lifespan (anxiety disorders: generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, specific phobias, agoraphobia, separation anxiety disorder, selective mutism; depressive disorders: major depressive disorder (MDD), persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD), seasonal affective disorder (SAD), disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD); bipolar disorders: bipolar I, bipolar II, cyclothymic disorder; schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders: schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, schizophreniform disorder, brief psychotic disorder, delusional disorder, substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder; personality disorders: cluster A (paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal), cluster B (antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic), cluster C (avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive); eating disorders: anorexia nervosa (restricting type, binge-purge type), bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), pica, rumination disorder; trauma and stressor-related disorders: post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), acute stress disorder, adjustment disorder, reactive attachment disorder, disinhibited social engagement disorder; obsessive-compulsive and related disorders: OCD, body dysmorphic disorder, hoarding disorder, trichotillomania (hair-pulling), excoriation (skin-picking), substance/medication-induced OCD; somatic symptom and related disorders: somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis), conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder), factitious disorder (Munchausen syndrome), factitious disorder imposed on another (Munchausen by proxy); dissociative disorders: dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality), dissociative amnesia, depersonalization/derealization disorder; neurodevelopmental disorders: ADHD, autism spectrum disorder (ASD), intellectual disability, specific learning disorder, communication disorders, motor disorders (Tourette's, tic disorders); neurocognitive disorders: delirium, major neurocognitive disorder (dementia) of various types (Alzheimer's, vascular, Lewy body, frontotemporal, Parkinson's, Huntington's, HIV, prion disease), mild neurocognitive disorder; substance-related and addictive disorders: alcohol use disorder, opioid use disorder, stimulant use disorder (cocaine, amphetamine), cannabis use disorder, sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic use disorder, hallucinogen use disorder, inhalant use disorder, gambling disorder, internet gaming disorder; sleep-wake disorders: insomnia disorder, hypersomnolence disorder, narcolepsy, breathing-related sleep disorders (obstructive sleep apnea, central sleep apnea), parasomnias (nightmare disorder, sleep terror disorder, REM sleep behavior disorder, sleepwalking), restless legs syndrome; personality disorders overview, defense mechanisms, therapeutic modalities (individual therapy, group therapy, family therapy, couples therapy, milieu therapy, behavioral therapy, cognitive therapy, CBT, DBT, EMDR, exposure therapy, play therapy, art therapy, music therapy, animal-assisted therapy), psychopharmacology across disorders, stigma reduction, recovery model, patient advocacy, support systems and community resources (NAMI, AA, NA, Al-Anon, grief support groups, crisis respite, clubhouse model, assertive community treatment (ACT), intensive outpatient programs (IOP), partial hospitalization programs (PHP), residential treatment, case management, peer support specialists), therapeutic communication techniques (active listening, open-ended questions, closed-ended questions, focusing, clarifying, paraphrasing, restating, reflecting, summarizing, confronting, validating, offering self, providing silence, giving information, suggesting, exploring, encouraging description of perception, acknowledging, making observations, presenting reality, voicing doubt, seeking clarification, offering hope, encouraging comparison, restating humor, touching, silence, focusing on feelings, avoiding: giving advice, false reassurance, minimizing feelings, changing the subject, passing judgment, offering approval/disapproval, defensive responses, stereotyping, probing, challenging, testing, rejecting, disapproving, moralizing, requesting an explanation, using clichés), professional boundaries (therapeutic vs social relationships, dual relationships, boundary crossing vs boundary violation, transference, countertransference, self-disclosure guidelines, physical touch guidelines, gift-giving policies, social media boundaries, confidentiality exceptions, mandated reporting), and patient rights (informed consent, right to refuse treatment, least restrictive environment, confidentiality, privacy, dignity and respect, participation in care decisions, access to medical records, grievance process, advance directives, surrogate decision-makers, psychiatric advance directives, and advocacy). Each answer includes detailed rationales for both correct and incorrect options. Perfect for ATI proctored exam candidates, nursing students, NCLEX-RN preparation, and nursing program exit exams. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently pass your ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Actual Exam. Download your complete ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Actual Exam with 70 complete Q&A and detailed rationales instantly!

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ATI FUNDAMENTALS CMS PROCTORED ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | 70 Complete Questions | Verified
Answers with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed -
A+ Graded


Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Q1-20)
Subsection 1A: Management of Care - Delegation, Prioritization, Assignment,
Legal/Ethics (Q1-13)

Q1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has four patients. Which task is most
appropriate to delegate to a UAP? A. Assessing a post-op patient's incision for signs
of infection B. Administering oral antibiotics to a patient with pneumonia C. Assisting
a stable patient with bathing and hygiene D. Performing sterile dressing changes on
a patient with a wound vac

C. Assisting a stable patient with bathing and hygiene [CORRECT]

Rationale: UAPs can assist with basic ADLs such as bathing and hygiene for stable
patients, as these tasks do not require clinical judgment or assessment skills. A is
incorrect because wound assessment requires RN-level assessment and clinical
decision-making. B is incorrect because medication administration, even oral
medications, is outside the UAP scope of practice and requires an LPN or RN. D is
incorrect because sterile dressing changes and wound vac management require
sterile technique and RN-level intervention.

"Correct Answer: C"

Q2. A charge nurse is delegating tasks on a busy unit. Which task is appropriate to
assign to an LPN? A. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted patient with
heart failure B. Administering routine oral medications to stable patients C. Assessing
a patient's response to a new blood transfusion D. Teaching a patient about insulin
self-administration

B. Administering routine oral medications to stable patients [CORRECT]

Rationale: LPNs can administer routine oral medications to stable patients under the
supervision of an RN, as this falls within their scope of practice. A is incorrect because

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care planning and comprehensive assessment require RN-level critical thinking and
are not delegable to LPNs. C is incorrect because monitoring a patient during a
blood transfusion requires RN assessment and intervention for potential adverse
reactions. D is incorrect because patient education requiring complex teaching and
evaluation of learning is an RN responsibility.

"Correct Answer: B"

Q3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for four patients. Which patient
should the nurse assess first? A. A patient with a sprained ankle requesting pain
medication B. A patient with a blood pressure of 188/92 and a headache C. A patient
with a respiratory rate of 28 and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air D. A patient
with a stable blood glucose of 140 mg/dL awaiting discharge

C. A patient with a respiratory rate of 28 and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
[CORRECT]

Rationale: Using the ABC prioritization framework, the patient with tachypnea and
hypoxemia (SpO2 88%) has an immediate life-threatening airway/breathing problem
that requires urgent intervention. A is incorrect because pain management, while
important, is not life-threatening and can wait. B is incorrect because although the
blood pressure is elevated, the patient is stable and does not have signs of an acute
hypertensive emergency. D is incorrect because a stable blood glucose in a patient
awaiting discharge is the lowest priority and does not require immediate nursing
action.

"Correct Answer: C"

Q4. A nurse is caring for multiple patients on a medical unit. Using Maslow's
hierarchy of needs, which patient need should be addressed first? A. A patient who is
anxious about an upcoming diagnostic test B. A patient who is requesting assistance
to call family members C. A patient who has not had a bowel movement in 3 days D.
A patient who is experiencing acute chest pain and shortness of breath

D. A patient who is experiencing acute chest pain and shortness of breath
[CORRECT]

Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy prioritizes physiologic needs (ABCs) above all other
needs, so the patient with acute chest pain and shortness of breath requires
immediate assessment and intervention. A is incorrect because anxiety and

,3



psychosocial needs belong to higher levels of the hierarchy and are addressed after
physiologic stability. B is incorrect because love and belonging needs are higher-level
needs and do not take priority over life-threatening physiologic concerns. C is
incorrect because although constipation is a physiologic issue, it is not immediately
life-threatening compared to potential cardiac or respiratory compromise.

"Correct Answer: D"

Q5. A patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. Which statement by the nurse
demonstrates the correct understanding of the nurse's role in informed consent? A. "I
will explain the surgical procedure and potential risks to the patient." B. "I will witness
the patient's signature and confirm the patient understands the information." C. "I
will obtain the patient's signature on the consent form after explaining the
procedure." D. "I will delegate obtaining consent to the LPN since the surgeon is
unavailable."

B. "I will witness the patient's signature and confirm the patient understands the
information." [CORRECT]

Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the patient's signature,
confirm that the patient voluntarily consents, and verify that the patient understands
the information provided by the physician; the nurse does not explain the procedure
or risks. A is incorrect because explaining the surgical procedure and risks is the
physician's responsibility, not the nurse's. C is incorrect because the physician or
provider performing the procedure must obtain the signature after explaining the
procedure. D is incorrect because informed consent cannot be delegated to an LPN
and must be obtained by the provider performing the procedure.

"Correct Answer: B"

Q6. A nurse receives a phone call from a patient's employer requesting information
about the patient's hospitalization. The nurse should: A. Provide basic information
since employers have a right to know about employee health status B. Ask the
employer to submit a written request before releasing any information C. Refuse to
release any information without the patient's written authorization D. Release only
the minimum necessary information for treatment purposes

C. Refuse to release any information without the patient's written authorization
[CORRECT]

, 4



Rationale: HIPAA requires the nurse to refuse releasing any protected health
information without the patient's written authorization, except for permitted
disclosures for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations. A is incorrect because
employers do not have an automatic right to access employee health information
without patient consent. B is incorrect because a written request from the employer
does not override the requirement for patient authorization. D is incorrect because
the minimum necessary standard applies within the healthcare team for treatment
purposes, not to external parties such as employers.

"Correct Answer: C"

Q7. A nurse accidentally administers a medication to the wrong patient. After
ensuring the patient is safe, which action should the nurse take next? A. Document
the error in detail in the patient's medical record B. Complete an incident report and
notify the nurse manager C. Ask the physician to alter the medical record to reflect
the correct medication D. Wait to report the error until the end of the shift to avoid
immediate consequences

B. Complete an incident report and notify the nurse manager [CORRECT]

Rationale: The nurse should complete an incident report for risk management and
quality improvement purposes and notify the nurse manager; incident reports are
not placed in the medical record. A is incorrect because incident reports should never
be documented in the medical record, as they are not part of the legal medical
record and are protected for quality improvement. C is incorrect because altering the
medical record is fraud and can result in loss of licensure. D is incorrect because
errors must be reported immediately to ensure patient safety and timely
intervention.

"Correct Answer: B"

Q8. A charge nurse needs to delegate tasks for the upcoming shift. Which task is
appropriate to assign to an LPN? A. Initiating a blood transfusion and monitoring for
the first 15 minutes B. Inserting a urinary catheter using sterile technique C.
Performing tracheostomy suctioning on a stable patient with a mature stoma D.
Evaluating a patient's response to a new chemotherapy regimen

C. Performing tracheostomy suctioning on a stable patient with a mature stoma
[CORRECT]

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