SOUTH UNIVERSITY
NSG 6430 Women's Health
Final Exam
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
Reproductive Health | Pregnancy | Gynecologic Disorders | Contraception | Menopause | Breast Health
Questions: 100 Minutes: 120 Passing Score: 80% Format: Multiple Choice
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1: Reproductive Health & Wellness (Q1-Q18)
Section 2: Pregnancy & Prenatal Care (Q19-Q36)
Section 3: Gynecologic Disorders & Infections (Q37-Q53)
Section 4: Contraception & Family Planning (Q54-Q70)
Section 5: Menopause & Aging Women's Health (Q71-Q85)
Section 6: Breast Health & Oncology (Q86-Q100)
Answer Key (Last Page)
INSTRUCTIONS
This practice exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions divided across 6 sections covering Reproductive
Health and Wellness, Pregnancy and Prenatal Care, Gynecologic Disorders and Infections, Contraception and
Family Planning, Menopause and Aging Women's Health, and Breast Health and Oncology. You have 120
minutes to complete the exam. Select the single best answer for each question. A passing score of 80% or higher
(80 out of 100 correct) is required. Each question is worth one point. Review the rationale provided after each
answer to reinforce your understanding of key concepts tested on the NSG 6430 Women's Health Final Exam at
South University.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 1
, Section 1: Reproductive Health & Wellness -- 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 21-year-old college student presents to the campus health clinic requesting her first
well-woman examination. She reports no current concerns and denies sexual activity. The
nurse practitioner explains that the initial cervical cancer screening with Pap smear should
begin at age 21 regardless of sexual history. What is the recommended screening interval
for this patient if results are normal?
A. Every 3 years
B. Every year
C. Every 5 years
D. Every 2 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Current guidelines recommend cervical cancer screening with Pap smear alone every 3 years for women
aged 21-29 with normal results. Annual screening is not recommended for average-risk patients, and the
5-year interval applies only to co-testing with Pap and HPV after age 30.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 35-year-old woman presents for her annual well-woman visit. She has no history of
abnormal Pap smears and is in a monogamous relationship. The nurse practitioner
discusses cervical cancer screening options. For women aged 30-65, which screening
strategy is recommended?
A. Pap smear every 5 years regardless of HPV status
B. Pap smear alone every 3 years or co-testing with Pap and HPV every 5 years
C. Pap smear alone every year
D. HPV testing alone every year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For women aged 30-65, current guidelines recommend either Pap smear alone every 3 years or co-testing
with Pap smear and HPV testing every 5 years. Annual screening is not recommended, and HPV testing
alone is not yet approved as a primary screening strategy in all settings.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 1
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old patient reports cyclic pelvic pain occurring just before and during her menses
for the past 6 months. She rates the pain as 7/10 and states ibuprofen provides minimal
relief. Her pelvic examination is unremarkable. The nurse practitioner suspects primary
dysmenorrhea. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intramuscular medroxyprogesterone acetate
B. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
D. NSAIDs such as naproxen at adequate dosing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea is NSAIDs at adequate dosing (such as naproxen 500 mg
twice daily) initiated at the onset of menses. If NSAIDs are insufficient, combined oral contraceptives can be
added as second-line. The patient reports ibuprofen provides minimal relief, but dosing may have been
inadequate.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 19-year-old patient presents with concerns about irregular menstrual cycles. She reports
her periods have always been irregular, occurring every 35-90 days, and she has
moderate acne on her face and chest. Her BMI is 28. The nurse practitioner suspects
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which laboratory finding would most strongly support
this diagnosis?
A. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
B. Elevated prolactin level
C. Elevated estrogen level
D. Elevated luteinizing hormone to follicle-stimulating hormone ratio
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
PCOS is characterized by an elevated LH-to-FSH ratio (often 2:1 or greater), hyperandrogenism, and
oligo-anovulation. Elevated TSH suggests hypothyroidism, elevated prolactin suggests a pituitary issue, and
elevated estrogen is not diagnostic for PCOS. The Rotterdam criteria require two of three: oligo-anovulation,
hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 1
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal itching, burning, and a thick
white discharge. She has no history of sexually transmitted infections and is in a
monogamous relationship. Wet mount examination reveals pseudohyphae. The nurse
practitioner diagnoses vulvovaginal candidiasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose
B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
D. Azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose is an appropriate treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis. Metronidazole is used for bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, doxycycline is used for
chlamydia, and azithromycin is used for chlamydia or gonorrhea. The pseudohyphae on wet mount confirm
a fungal infection.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A 30-year-old patient presents with a fishy odor and thin grayish vaginal discharge. The
whiff test is positive and clue cells are present on wet mount. The nurse practitioner
diagnoses bacterial vaginosis. What is the recommended treatment for this non-pregnant
patient?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose
D. Fluconazole cream topically for 7 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Bacterial vaginosis is treated with metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days or metronidazole gel
0.75% intravaginally for 5 days. Fluconazole is used for candidiasis, and ciprofloxacin is not a treatment for
BV. The positive whiff test and clue cells are diagnostic for BV.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 1
NSG 6430 Women's Health
Final Exam
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
Reproductive Health | Pregnancy | Gynecologic Disorders | Contraception | Menopause | Breast Health
Questions: 100 Minutes: 120 Passing Score: 80% Format: Multiple Choice
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1: Reproductive Health & Wellness (Q1-Q18)
Section 2: Pregnancy & Prenatal Care (Q19-Q36)
Section 3: Gynecologic Disorders & Infections (Q37-Q53)
Section 4: Contraception & Family Planning (Q54-Q70)
Section 5: Menopause & Aging Women's Health (Q71-Q85)
Section 6: Breast Health & Oncology (Q86-Q100)
Answer Key (Last Page)
INSTRUCTIONS
This practice exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions divided across 6 sections covering Reproductive
Health and Wellness, Pregnancy and Prenatal Care, Gynecologic Disorders and Infections, Contraception and
Family Planning, Menopause and Aging Women's Health, and Breast Health and Oncology. You have 120
minutes to complete the exam. Select the single best answer for each question. A passing score of 80% or higher
(80 out of 100 correct) is required. Each question is worth one point. Review the rationale provided after each
answer to reinforce your understanding of key concepts tested on the NSG 6430 Women's Health Final Exam at
South University.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 1
, Section 1: Reproductive Health & Wellness -- 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 21-year-old college student presents to the campus health clinic requesting her first
well-woman examination. She reports no current concerns and denies sexual activity. The
nurse practitioner explains that the initial cervical cancer screening with Pap smear should
begin at age 21 regardless of sexual history. What is the recommended screening interval
for this patient if results are normal?
A. Every 3 years
B. Every year
C. Every 5 years
D. Every 2 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Current guidelines recommend cervical cancer screening with Pap smear alone every 3 years for women
aged 21-29 with normal results. Annual screening is not recommended for average-risk patients, and the
5-year interval applies only to co-testing with Pap and HPV after age 30.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
A 35-year-old woman presents for her annual well-woman visit. She has no history of
abnormal Pap smears and is in a monogamous relationship. The nurse practitioner
discusses cervical cancer screening options. For women aged 30-65, which screening
strategy is recommended?
A. Pap smear every 5 years regardless of HPV status
B. Pap smear alone every 3 years or co-testing with Pap and HPV every 5 years
C. Pap smear alone every year
D. HPV testing alone every year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For women aged 30-65, current guidelines recommend either Pap smear alone every 3 years or co-testing
with Pap smear and HPV testing every 5 years. Annual screening is not recommended, and HPV testing
alone is not yet approved as a primary screening strategy in all settings.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 1
,Q3 Question 3 of 100
A 28-year-old patient reports cyclic pelvic pain occurring just before and during her menses
for the past 6 months. She rates the pain as 7/10 and states ibuprofen provides minimal
relief. Her pelvic examination is unremarkable. The nurse practitioner suspects primary
dysmenorrhea. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Intramuscular medroxyprogesterone acetate
B. Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
D. NSAIDs such as naproxen at adequate dosing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea is NSAIDs at adequate dosing (such as naproxen 500 mg
twice daily) initiated at the onset of menses. If NSAIDs are insufficient, combined oral contraceptives can be
added as second-line. The patient reports ibuprofen provides minimal relief, but dosing may have been
inadequate.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 19-year-old patient presents with concerns about irregular menstrual cycles. She reports
her periods have always been irregular, occurring every 35-90 days, and she has
moderate acne on her face and chest. Her BMI is 28. The nurse practitioner suspects
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which laboratory finding would most strongly support
this diagnosis?
A. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
B. Elevated prolactin level
C. Elevated estrogen level
D. Elevated luteinizing hormone to follicle-stimulating hormone ratio
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
PCOS is characterized by an elevated LH-to-FSH ratio (often 2:1 or greater), hyperandrogenism, and
oligo-anovulation. Elevated TSH suggests hypothyroidism, elevated prolactin suggests a pituitary issue, and
elevated estrogen is not diagnostic for PCOS. The Rotterdam criteria require two of three: oligo-anovulation,
hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 1
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal itching, burning, and a thick
white discharge. She has no history of sexually transmitted infections and is in a
monogamous relationship. Wet mount examination reveals pseudohyphae. The nurse
practitioner diagnoses vulvovaginal candidiasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose
B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
D. Azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose is an appropriate treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis. Metronidazole is used for bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, doxycycline is used for
chlamydia, and azithromycin is used for chlamydia or gonorrhea. The pseudohyphae on wet mount confirm
a fungal infection.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A 30-year-old patient presents with a fishy odor and thin grayish vaginal discharge. The
whiff test is positive and clue cells are present on wet mount. The nurse practitioner
diagnoses bacterial vaginosis. What is the recommended treatment for this non-pregnant
patient?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C. Fluconazole 150 mg orally as a single dose
D. Fluconazole cream topically for 7 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Bacterial vaginosis is treated with metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days or metronidazole gel
0.75% intravaginally for 5 days. Fluconazole is used for candidiasis, and ciprofloxacin is not a treatment for
BV. The positive whiff test and clue cells are diagnostic for BV.
NSG 6430 Women's Health -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 1
