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NUR 2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 1 –
Version 2 (Modules 1–3) Comprehensive Question Bank
with Verified Answers
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS & HOMEOSTASIS (Modules 1-2)
1. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control
mechanisms?
A) Blood pressure 110/70
B) Fever
C) Heart rate 72
D) Respiratory rate 16
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Fever
Rationale: Fever indicates that the body’s set point has been altered, typically by pyrogens
acting on the hypothalamus, representing a change in homeostatic regulation .
2. What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
A) A sign is reported by the patient; a symptom is measured by the nurse
B) A sign is objective and observable; a symptom is subjective and felt by the patient
C) Signs indicate chronic disease; symptoms indicate acute disease
D) There is no difference
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) A sign is objective and observable; a symptom is subjective and felt
by the patient
Rationale: Signs (e.g., rash, fever, swelling) are measurable. Symptoms (e.g., pain, nausea,
dizziness) are the patient’s reported experience .
3. A disorder in which the cause is unknown is referred to as:
A) Iatrogenic
B) Nosocomial
C) Idiopathic
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D) Pathognomonic
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Idiopathic
Rationale: Idiopathic diseases have an unknown cause. Iatrogenic means caused by medical
treatment; nosocomial means acquired in a hospital .
4. A patient is diagnosed with strep throat. The bacteria invade the tissue and trigger an
inflammatory response. The statement "Strep infection activates immune cells leading to
inflammation" describes which aspect of pathophysiology?
A) Etiology
B) Pathogenesis
C) Clinical Manifestation
D) Epidemiology
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis is the development and evolution of a disease, explaining how the
initial stimulus (strep bacteria) leads to the cellular changes and manifestations (inflammation) .
5. A nurse administers a vaccine to a healthy child to prevent future infection. This is an
example of which level of prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Primary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs (altering susceptibility
or reducing exposure). Vaccination is the classic example .
6. A nurse organizes a blood pressure screening clinic at a local church. This is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion
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☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to catch disease
early (e.g., BP screening, mammograms, Pap smears) .
7. A patient who suffered a stroke is referred to physical therapy to regain mobility. This is an
example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Risk factor modification
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation, reducing disability, and restoring
function after a disease has occurred .
SECTION 2: CELLULAR FUNCTION & INJURY (Module 1)
8. Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because it produces ATP?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondria
D) Nucleus
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Mitochondria
Rationale: Mitochondria convert glucose and oxygen into ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.
They contain their own DNA .
9. The activities of the cell are directed by which structure?
A) Mitochondria
B) Cytoplasm
C) Nucleus
D) Cell membrane
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☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Nucleus
Rationale: The nucleus contains DNA, which stores genetic information and directs protein
synthesis and cellular activities .
10. Which organelles are directly involved in protein synthesis? (Select all that apply)
A) Ribosomes
B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Mitochondria
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Ribosomes, B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Rationale: Ribosomes synthesize proteins; the rough ER modifies and transports them. The
Golgi packages proteins but does not synthesize them .
11. Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called:
A) Hypoxic injury
B) Ischemic injury
C) Necrotic injury
D) Apoptotic injury
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Ischemic injury
Rationale: Ischemia refers specifically to reduced blood flow. While it causes hypoxia, the key
factor is the lack of blood supply, which also leads to waste accumulation .
12. During reversible cell injury, decreased ATP production leads to:
A) Increased protein synthesis
B) Sodium accumulation inside the cell
C) Cellular shrinkage
D) Enhanced DNA repair
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Sodium accumulation inside the cell
Rationale: Low ATP causes the Na+/K+ pump to fail. Sodium accumulates inside the cell,
increasing osmotic pressure and drawing water in, causing cellular swelling (hydropic swelling) .
NUR 2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 1 –
Version 2 (Modules 1–3) Comprehensive Question Bank
with Verified Answers
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS & HOMEOSTASIS (Modules 1-2)
1. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control
mechanisms?
A) Blood pressure 110/70
B) Fever
C) Heart rate 72
D) Respiratory rate 16
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Fever
Rationale: Fever indicates that the body’s set point has been altered, typically by pyrogens
acting on the hypothalamus, representing a change in homeostatic regulation .
2. What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
A) A sign is reported by the patient; a symptom is measured by the nurse
B) A sign is objective and observable; a symptom is subjective and felt by the patient
C) Signs indicate chronic disease; symptoms indicate acute disease
D) There is no difference
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) A sign is objective and observable; a symptom is subjective and felt
by the patient
Rationale: Signs (e.g., rash, fever, swelling) are measurable. Symptoms (e.g., pain, nausea,
dizziness) are the patient’s reported experience .
3. A disorder in which the cause is unknown is referred to as:
A) Iatrogenic
B) Nosocomial
C) Idiopathic
, 2
D) Pathognomonic
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Idiopathic
Rationale: Idiopathic diseases have an unknown cause. Iatrogenic means caused by medical
treatment; nosocomial means acquired in a hospital .
4. A patient is diagnosed with strep throat. The bacteria invade the tissue and trigger an
inflammatory response. The statement "Strep infection activates immune cells leading to
inflammation" describes which aspect of pathophysiology?
A) Etiology
B) Pathogenesis
C) Clinical Manifestation
D) Epidemiology
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis is the development and evolution of a disease, explaining how the
initial stimulus (strep bacteria) leads to the cellular changes and manifestations (inflammation) .
5. A nurse administers a vaccine to a healthy child to prevent future infection. This is an
example of which level of prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Primary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs (altering susceptibility
or reducing exposure). Vaccination is the classic example .
6. A nurse organizes a blood pressure screening clinic at a local church. This is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Health promotion
, 3
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Secondary prevention
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to catch disease
early (e.g., BP screening, mammograms, Pap smears) .
7. A patient who suffered a stroke is referred to physical therapy to regain mobility. This is an
example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Risk factor modification
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation, reducing disability, and restoring
function after a disease has occurred .
SECTION 2: CELLULAR FUNCTION & INJURY (Module 1)
8. Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell" because it produces ATP?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondria
D) Nucleus
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Mitochondria
Rationale: Mitochondria convert glucose and oxygen into ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.
They contain their own DNA .
9. The activities of the cell are directed by which structure?
A) Mitochondria
B) Cytoplasm
C) Nucleus
D) Cell membrane
, 4
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Nucleus
Rationale: The nucleus contains DNA, which stores genetic information and directs protein
synthesis and cellular activities .
10. Which organelles are directly involved in protein synthesis? (Select all that apply)
A) Ribosomes
B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Mitochondria
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: A) Ribosomes, B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Rationale: Ribosomes synthesize proteins; the rough ER modifies and transports them. The
Golgi packages proteins but does not synthesize them .
11. Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called:
A) Hypoxic injury
B) Ischemic injury
C) Necrotic injury
D) Apoptotic injury
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Ischemic injury
Rationale: Ischemia refers specifically to reduced blood flow. While it causes hypoxia, the key
factor is the lack of blood supply, which also leads to waste accumulation .
12. During reversible cell injury, decreased ATP production leads to:
A) Increased protein synthesis
B) Sodium accumulation inside the cell
C) Cellular shrinkage
D) Enhanced DNA repair
☑ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Sodium accumulation inside the cell
Rationale: Low ATP causes the Na+/K+ pump to fail. Sodium accumulates inside the cell,
increasing osmotic pressure and drawing water in, causing cellular swelling (hydropic swelling) .
