NR 567 Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult-Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner (AGACNP)

It covers key domains which include Pharmacology in Special Populations, Adverse Drug Reactions & Interactions, Pharmacogenomics, Evidence-Based Prescribing & Clinical Decision-Making and Acute Care & Emergency Pharmacology A 52-year-old man with a long history of obesity (BMI 36 kg/m²), hypertension, and controlled type 2 diabetes presents for weight management. He reports previous unsuccessful lifestyle modifications and asks about pharmacologic options. His current medications include metformin and lisinopril. He has no history of pancreatitis or thyroid cancer. The provider considers initiating a GLP-1 receptor agonist. Which mechanism best explains the weight loss effect of this drug class? a. Increased basal metabolic rate through thyroid stimulation b. Delayed gastric emptying and increased satiety signaling c. Inhibition of pancreatic lipase in the gastrointestinal tract d. Direct stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors Correct Answer : b. Delayed gastric emptying and increased satiety signaling Rationale: GLP-1 receptor agonists (e.g., semaglutide) promote weight loss primarily by slowing gastric emptying and enhancing central satiety pathways. This reduces caloric intake. They do not directly increase metabolism or act on fat absorption like orlistat, nor do they stimulate beta receptors.