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NSG530 Exam 3 V1 | NSG 530 Advanced Pathophysiology | Wilkes University

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NSG530 Exam 3 V1 | NSG 530 Advanced Pathophysiology | Wilkes University

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NSG530 Exam 3 V1 | NSG 530 Advanced
Pathophysiology | Wilkes University
1. Which pathophysiological mechanism is primarily responsible for the development of

Parkinson’s disease?

A. Excessive production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction


B. Autoimmune destruction of myelin in the central nervous system


C. Degeneration of the nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway


D. Accumulation of amyloid-beta plaques in the cerebral cortex


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Parkinson’s disease is characterized by the loss of dopaminergic

neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta. This loss leads to a deficiency of dopamine

in the basal ganglia, which disrupts the balance between excitatory and inhibitory

neurotransmission. As a result, patients experience the classic motor symptoms such as

bradykinesia, resting tremor, and rigidity.


2. In Alzheimer’s disease, the intracellular accumulation of which protein leads to the

formation of neurofibrillary tangles?

A. Alpha-synuclein


B. Beta-amyloid


C. Tau protein

,D. Huntingtin protein


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Neurofibrillary tangles are composed of hyperphosphorylated tau

protein, which normally stabilizes microtubules within neurons. When tau becomes

hyperphosphorylated, it detaches from microtubules and aggregates, leading to neuronal

dysfunction and death. This process, along with the formation of extracellular amyloid

plaques, is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s pathophysiology.


3. A patient presents with sudden weakness on the right side of the body and difficulty

speaking. A CT scan rules out hemorrhage. What is the most likely underlying cause?

A. Rupture of a berry aneurysm


B. Thromboembolic occlusion of a cerebral artery


C. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)


D. Transient vasospasm of the carotid artery


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Since a hemorrhage was ruled out by the CT scan, the symptoms

point toward an ischemic stroke, most often caused by a thrombus or embolus. Ischemic

strokes result in a lack of blood flow and oxygen to brain tissue, leading to rapid cellular

injury. Prompt restoration of perfusion is critical to minimize permanent neurological

deficits.

, 4. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A. An autoimmune-mediated demyelination of the central nervous system


B. Destruction of upper and lower motor neurons due to oxidative stress


C. Peripheral nerve demyelination following a viral infection


D. Impaired acetylcholine release at the presynaptic terminal


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Multiple Sclerosis is an inflammatory autoimmune disease where T-

cells attack the myelin sheath surrounding axons in the brain and spinal cord. This

demyelination disrupts the saltatory conduction of nerve impulses, leading to varied

neurological symptoms. Over time, the repeated inflammatory episodes can lead to axonal

loss and permanent disability.


5. What is the primary pathological feature of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A. Degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons


B. Inflammation of the meningeal layers around the spinal cord


C. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the midbrain


D. Blocking of voltage-gated calcium channels in the motor cortex


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects the motor

neurons responsible for voluntary muscle movement. The death of both upper motor

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