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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam (32 Latest Versions, 2022) / Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam / ATI Proctored Maternal Newborn Exam |Real + Practice Exam, Verified Q & A|

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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam (32 Latest Versions, 2022) / Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam / ATI Proctored Maternal Newborn Exam |Real + Practice Exam, Verified Q & A|

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ATI Maternal Newbor
Vak
ATI Maternal Newbor

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam (32 Latest Versions,
2022) / Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam / ATI
Proctored Maternal Newborn Exam |Real + Practice Exam,
Verified Q & A|

SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM (Prenatal Care & Pregnancy
Complications)




Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has oligohydramnios.
Which of the following fetal anomalies should the nurse
expect?

A. Renal agenesis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Spina bifida
D. Hydrocephalus

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is associated
with fetal renal anomalies such as renal agenesis (absence of
kidneys) or urinary tract obstruction. Adequate fetal urine
production is necessary for normal amniotic fluid volume .

,Q2. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks gestation
and has hydatidiform mole. Which of the following findings
should the nurse expect?

A. Hypothermia
B. Dark brown vaginal discharge
C. Fetal heart tones
D. Decreased urinary output

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) is a benign
proliferative growth of the chorionic villi. As cells slough off the
uterine wall, vaginal discharge is usually dark brown and can
contain grapelike clusters .




Q3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of
gestation and has mild gestational hypertension. Which of
the following findings should the nurse identify as the
priority?

A. 480 mL urine output in 24 hours
B. 1+ protein in the urine
C. +2 edema of the feet
D. BP 144/92

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A 24-hour urine output of 480 mL is below the
expected reference range. This indicates decreased renal

,perfusion and should be reported to the provider immediately as
it may indicate worsening preeclampsia .


Q4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of
gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa. Which of
the following findings supports this diagnosis?

A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
B. Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus
C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
D. Intermittent abdominal pain following passage of bloody
mucus

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants in
the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely obstructing the
cervical os. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding is the classic
finding in the second and third trimester .


Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of
gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding. The client is placed on a fetal monitor
showing FHR 138/min and no uterine contractions. Vital
signs: BP 98/52 mm Hg, HR 118/min, RR 24/min, temp 36.4°C
(97.6°F). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

A. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
B. Initiate IV access

, C. Administer oxygen via face mask
D. Prepare for immediate vaginal delivery

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Insertion of a large-bore IV catheter is the priority
nursing action. The client is losing blood rapidly, has hypotension,
and tachycardia. IV access will allow IV fluids and blood to be
administered quickly if hypovolemia develops .




Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation
and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following
medications should the nurse plan to administer?

A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid given to stimulate
fetal lung maturity and prevent respiratory distress syndrome in
preterm infants. It is most effective if delivery occurs between 24
hours and 7 days after administration .

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