NURS 611 MARYVILLE EXAM 4 | COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH
EXPERT SOLUTIONS | 2026 LATEST UPDATED | GET A+
How much of the cardiac output do the kidneys require? - (answer)20-25%
What causes the umbilical referred pain with kidney stones? - (answer)sensory innervation of the
upper part of the ureter arising from the 10th thoracic nerve root.
What are the clinical manifestations of a UTI in older adults? - (answer)confusion and poorly
localized abdominal discomfort (symptoms are vague).
What is pyelonephritis? - (answer)it is an infection of one or both upper urinary tracts(ureter,
renal pelvis, and kidney interstitium).
What are the underlying risk factors for the development of pyelonephritis? - (answer)urinary
obstruction and reflux of urine from the bladder (vesicoureteral reflux).
What microorganisms are associated with acute pyelonephritis? - (answer)e. coli, proteus, or
pseudomonas.
What do the microorganisms that cause pyelonephritis do to increase the risk of stone formation?
- (answer)the microorganisms split urea into ammonia, making alkaline urine that increases the
risk.
Define painful bladder syndrome (interstitial cystitis). - (answer)it is a condition that includes
nonbacterial infectious cystitis and noninfectious cystitis.
It is possible that noninfectious cystitis is caused by an autoimmune response. What happens
during an autoimmune reaction? - (answer)it may be responsible for inflammatory response,
which includes mast cell activation, altered epithelial permeability, neuroinflammation, and
increased sensory nerve stimulation.
,How is a diagnosis of IC differentiated from a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? - (answer)urine
culture, urinalysis, and clinical signs and symptoms. White blood cell casts indicate
pyelonephritis, but they are not always present in the urine.
What lab values point to a reduced GFR? - (answer)elevated plasma urea, creatinine
concentration, or reduced renal creatinine clearance.
What is acute glomerulonephritis? - (answer)it is a term that includes renal diseases that cause
glomerular inflammation through immune mechanisms.
What happens to the GFR during an inflammatory response? - (answer)the glomerular capillary
filtration membrane including the endothelium, basement membrane, and epithelium (podocytes)
are damaged by inflammation causing immune mechanisms.
What are the classic symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis? - (answer)sudden onset of hematuria
including red blood cell casts and proteinuria (milder than nephrotic syndrome), and in more
severe cases, these symptoms are also accompanied by edema, hypertension, and impaired renal
function.
What is nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)It is the excretion of 3.0 g or more of protein (massive
proteinuria) in the urine per day, hypoalbuminemia (less than 3.0 g/dl), and peripheral edema.
What is nephrotic syndrome characteristic of? - (answer)glomerular injury.
What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)minimal change disease (lipoid
nephrosis), membranous glomerulonephritis, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
What are the secondary forms of nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)they occur in systemic diseases
including DM, amyloidosis, and SLE. It is also seen with certain drugs, infections, malignancies,
and vascular disorders.
,Acute kidney injury is also known as renal failure. Explain chronic and acute kidney injuries. -
(answer)kidney failure can be chronic and progressive. Acute occurs rapidly within hours, and
may be reversible.
What is renal insufficiency? - (answer)it is a decline in renal function to about 25% of normal or
a GFR of 25 to 35 ml/minute.
What lab values are elevated with renal insufficiency? - (answer)serum creatinine and urea.
serum creatinine changes only occur if more than 50% of GFRis lost and are often delayed by
more than 24 hours.
What are patients with renal insufficiency prone to? - (answer)hyperkalemia and metabolic
acidosis. Renal phosphate excretion is decreased, causing hyperphosphatemia. Fluid retention
may cause edema. Symptoms of HF develop in person with CVD. N/V, fatigue accompany
uremia and electrolyte imbalances. Wound healing is delayed, and the risk of infection,
particularly pneumonia, is greater.
What is visceral obesity associated with? - (answer)accelerated lipolysis, increased
inflammation, metabolic syndrome, type II DM, CV complications, and cancer.
What are the components of metabolic syndrome? - (answer)hypertriglyceridemia, reduced
HDL, increased LDL, HTN, and insulin resistance.
Peripheral and subcutaneous fat is less... - (answer)metabolically active and less lipolytic and
releases fewer adipocytokines (particularly adiponectin) than visceral fat.
What is GERD? - (answer)it is the reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus
that cuases esophagitis.
What chemicals can relax the lower esophageal sphincter? - (answer)anticholinergics, nitrates,
CCBs, and nicotine.
, How do bowel obstructions present in the early stage? - (answer)with abdominal distention.
What happens metabolically if the bowel obstruction is at the pylorus or high in the small
intestine? - (answer)metabolic alkalosis develops initially as a result of excessive loss of
hydrogen ions that normally would be reabsorbed from the gastric juice.
What occurs with prolonged intestinal obstruction? - (answer)the lack of circulation produces
lactic acid (decreased tissue perfusion) thus metabolic acidosis.
What are the risk factors for PUD? - (answer)genetic predisposition, H. pylori, and habitual use
of NSAIDs. Other risk factors include alcohol abuse, smoking acute pancreatitis, COPD, obesity,
cirrhosis, and age > 65.
What does the chronic use of NSAIDs do to the stomach lining? - (answer)suppresses mucosal
prostagladin synthesis, resulting in decreased bicarbonate secretion and mucin production and
increased secretion of HCL.
What are the clinical manifestations of dumping syndrome? - (answer)increased pulse,
hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness following a partial gastrectomy or
pyloroplasty. Occurs about 20 minutes after eating.
What happens during dumping syndrome? - (answer)occurs about 20 minutes after eating. Rapid
gastric emptying and creation of a high osmotic gradient within the small intestine causes a shift
from vascular compartment to the intestinal lumen.
How do you manage dumping syndrome? - (answer)dietary management with frequent small
meals, no fluids during meals, high protein, low carb diet. Sugar really activates the response.
Age of onset for UC? - (answer)any age, 10-40 years most common
EXPERT SOLUTIONS | 2026 LATEST UPDATED | GET A+
How much of the cardiac output do the kidneys require? - (answer)20-25%
What causes the umbilical referred pain with kidney stones? - (answer)sensory innervation of the
upper part of the ureter arising from the 10th thoracic nerve root.
What are the clinical manifestations of a UTI in older adults? - (answer)confusion and poorly
localized abdominal discomfort (symptoms are vague).
What is pyelonephritis? - (answer)it is an infection of one or both upper urinary tracts(ureter,
renal pelvis, and kidney interstitium).
What are the underlying risk factors for the development of pyelonephritis? - (answer)urinary
obstruction and reflux of urine from the bladder (vesicoureteral reflux).
What microorganisms are associated with acute pyelonephritis? - (answer)e. coli, proteus, or
pseudomonas.
What do the microorganisms that cause pyelonephritis do to increase the risk of stone formation?
- (answer)the microorganisms split urea into ammonia, making alkaline urine that increases the
risk.
Define painful bladder syndrome (interstitial cystitis). - (answer)it is a condition that includes
nonbacterial infectious cystitis and noninfectious cystitis.
It is possible that noninfectious cystitis is caused by an autoimmune response. What happens
during an autoimmune reaction? - (answer)it may be responsible for inflammatory response,
which includes mast cell activation, altered epithelial permeability, neuroinflammation, and
increased sensory nerve stimulation.
,How is a diagnosis of IC differentiated from a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? - (answer)urine
culture, urinalysis, and clinical signs and symptoms. White blood cell casts indicate
pyelonephritis, but they are not always present in the urine.
What lab values point to a reduced GFR? - (answer)elevated plasma urea, creatinine
concentration, or reduced renal creatinine clearance.
What is acute glomerulonephritis? - (answer)it is a term that includes renal diseases that cause
glomerular inflammation through immune mechanisms.
What happens to the GFR during an inflammatory response? - (answer)the glomerular capillary
filtration membrane including the endothelium, basement membrane, and epithelium (podocytes)
are damaged by inflammation causing immune mechanisms.
What are the classic symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis? - (answer)sudden onset of hematuria
including red blood cell casts and proteinuria (milder than nephrotic syndrome), and in more
severe cases, these symptoms are also accompanied by edema, hypertension, and impaired renal
function.
What is nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)It is the excretion of 3.0 g or more of protein (massive
proteinuria) in the urine per day, hypoalbuminemia (less than 3.0 g/dl), and peripheral edema.
What is nephrotic syndrome characteristic of? - (answer)glomerular injury.
What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)minimal change disease (lipoid
nephrosis), membranous glomerulonephritis, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
What are the secondary forms of nephrotic syndrome? - (answer)they occur in systemic diseases
including DM, amyloidosis, and SLE. It is also seen with certain drugs, infections, malignancies,
and vascular disorders.
,Acute kidney injury is also known as renal failure. Explain chronic and acute kidney injuries. -
(answer)kidney failure can be chronic and progressive. Acute occurs rapidly within hours, and
may be reversible.
What is renal insufficiency? - (answer)it is a decline in renal function to about 25% of normal or
a GFR of 25 to 35 ml/minute.
What lab values are elevated with renal insufficiency? - (answer)serum creatinine and urea.
serum creatinine changes only occur if more than 50% of GFRis lost and are often delayed by
more than 24 hours.
What are patients with renal insufficiency prone to? - (answer)hyperkalemia and metabolic
acidosis. Renal phosphate excretion is decreased, causing hyperphosphatemia. Fluid retention
may cause edema. Symptoms of HF develop in person with CVD. N/V, fatigue accompany
uremia and electrolyte imbalances. Wound healing is delayed, and the risk of infection,
particularly pneumonia, is greater.
What is visceral obesity associated with? - (answer)accelerated lipolysis, increased
inflammation, metabolic syndrome, type II DM, CV complications, and cancer.
What are the components of metabolic syndrome? - (answer)hypertriglyceridemia, reduced
HDL, increased LDL, HTN, and insulin resistance.
Peripheral and subcutaneous fat is less... - (answer)metabolically active and less lipolytic and
releases fewer adipocytokines (particularly adiponectin) than visceral fat.
What is GERD? - (answer)it is the reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus
that cuases esophagitis.
What chemicals can relax the lower esophageal sphincter? - (answer)anticholinergics, nitrates,
CCBs, and nicotine.
, How do bowel obstructions present in the early stage? - (answer)with abdominal distention.
What happens metabolically if the bowel obstruction is at the pylorus or high in the small
intestine? - (answer)metabolic alkalosis develops initially as a result of excessive loss of
hydrogen ions that normally would be reabsorbed from the gastric juice.
What occurs with prolonged intestinal obstruction? - (answer)the lack of circulation produces
lactic acid (decreased tissue perfusion) thus metabolic acidosis.
What are the risk factors for PUD? - (answer)genetic predisposition, H. pylori, and habitual use
of NSAIDs. Other risk factors include alcohol abuse, smoking acute pancreatitis, COPD, obesity,
cirrhosis, and age > 65.
What does the chronic use of NSAIDs do to the stomach lining? - (answer)suppresses mucosal
prostagladin synthesis, resulting in decreased bicarbonate secretion and mucin production and
increased secretion of HCL.
What are the clinical manifestations of dumping syndrome? - (answer)increased pulse,
hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness following a partial gastrectomy or
pyloroplasty. Occurs about 20 minutes after eating.
What happens during dumping syndrome? - (answer)occurs about 20 minutes after eating. Rapid
gastric emptying and creation of a high osmotic gradient within the small intestine causes a shift
from vascular compartment to the intestinal lumen.
How do you manage dumping syndrome? - (answer)dietary management with frequent small
meals, no fluids during meals, high protein, low carb diet. Sugar really activates the response.
Age of onset for UC? - (answer)any age, 10-40 years most common
