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NUR 265 EXAM 1 TEST BANK 2025 – 200 REAL QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS | ADVANCED MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING

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Pass your NUR 265 Exam 1 with confidence using this complete test bank of 200 real exam questions and correct answers. Covering high-acuity topics—heart failure, cardiogenic shock, dysrhythmias, MI, ARDS, mechanical ventilation, chest tubes, acute kidney injury, dialysis, DKA, thyroid disorders, cirrhosis, pancreatitis, sepsis, stroke, ICP, and hematologic emergencies—each question includes detailed rationales to strengthen clinical judgment and exam readiness. Perfect for nursing students in advanced med-surg and critical care courses.

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Institution
NUR 265
Course
NUR 265

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NUR 265 EXAM 1 (GALEN) NEWEST 2025 TEST BANK|
NUR256 ADVANCED CONCEPTS OF MEDICAL-
SURGICAL NURSING EXAM 1 REVIEW WITH 350 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST
RECENT!!)
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure has crackles
in both lungs, an S3 gallop, and oxygen saturation of 88% on
room air. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
a) Administer IV furosemide
b) Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
c) Start a dopamine infusion
d) Obtain a stat chest x-ray

Answer: b) Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position reduces preload and improves
ventilation, providing immediate relief of dyspnea. Airway and
breathing come before medications or diagnostics.



2. A patient with cardiogenic shock has a pulmonary artery
catheter. Which finding indicates improvement?

1

,a) Cardiac index (CI) increased from 1.6 to 2.8 L/min/m²
b) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) increased from 800 to
1200 dynes/sec/cm⁻⁵
c) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) increased from 18
to 24 mmHg
d) Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO₂) decreased from 70%
to 55%

Answer: a) Cardiac index increased from 1.6 to 2.8 L/min/m²
Rationale: Normal CI is 2.5–4.0 L/min/m². An increase indicates
improved cardiac output. Elevated SVR and PAWP suggest
worsening failure. Decreased SvO₂ indicates increased oxygen
extraction (worse).



3. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation with rapid
ventricular response (heart rate 150 bpm) has a blood pressure
of 85/50 mmHg and reports chest pain. What is the priority
action?
a) Administer oral metoprolol
b) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
c) Start a heparin drip
d) Give IV digoxin
2

,Answer: b) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
Rationale: Unstable atrial fibrillation (hypotension, chest pain)
requires immediate synchronized cardioversion. Medications are
for stable patients.



4. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV norepinephrine.
The IV site in the right forearm appears pale and cold. What
should the nurse do first?
a) Apply a warm compress
b) Stop the infusion immediately
c) Slow the infusion rate
d) Notify the provider

Answer: b) Stop the infusion immediately
Rationale: Pallor and coldness indicate possible extravasation or
severe vasoconstriction, risking tissue necrosis. Stop infusion first,
then notify provider and consider phentolamine.



5. A patient with an anterior wall myocardial infarction develops
new-onset hypotension and a murmur. Which complication should
the nurse suspect?
a) Pericarditis
3

, b) Ventricular septal rupture
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Aortic stenosis

Answer: b) Ventricular septal rupture
Rationale: Ventricular septal rupture causes a harsh holosystolic
murmur and sudden hemodynamic compromise, often 3–7 days
post-AMI, especially with anterior MI.



6. The nurse notes a widened QRS complex on the monitor of a
patient with hyperkalemia. Which medication should be
prepared?
a) Calcium gluconate
b) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
c) Insulin and dextrose
d) Furosemide

Answer: a) Calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes to
prevent ventricular dysrhythmias in severe hyperkalemia. It does
not lower potassium but buys time.



4

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Course
NUR 265

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Uploaded on
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Number of pages
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