CMA CERTIFICATION FINAL PREP EXAM 2026/2027
CERTIFIED MEDICAL ASSISTANT (CMA)
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 250 QUESTIONS WITH
100% CORRECT ANSWERS EXPERT VERIFIED |
LATEST VERSION | COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Certification: Certified Medical Assistant (CMA)
Governing Body: American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)
Exam Format: 200 multiple-choice questions, 4 segments of 40 minutes each, total 3 hours 15
minutes
Content Areas: General (Psychology, Communication, Professionalism, Medical Law/Ethics,
Risk Management, Medical Terminology), Administrative (Reception, Patient Navigation,
Business Practices, Medical Records, Scheduling, Finances), Clinical (Anatomy & Physiology,
Infection Control, Patient Intake, Assisting the Provider, Nutrition, Specimen Processing,
Diagnostics, Pharmacology, Emergency Management)
HOW TO USE THIS STUDY GUIDE
Exam Overview:
- Number of Questions: 200 on official exam (250 practice questions included here for
comprehensive review)
- Time Limit: 3 hours 15 minutes
- Passing Score: Determined by the Certifying Board using a criterion-referenced standard
- Recertification: Every 60 months via continuing education or re-examination
Eligibility Requirements:
- Graduation candidate or graduate of an accredited medical assisting program
- Take exam up to 30 days before completing coursework; must take within 12 months of
graduation as recent graduate
SECTION A: MEDICAL PRACTICE & LAW (Questions 1-30)
Question 1:
,Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patient expenses,
profits, and assets. Which type of medical practice is this?
A) Sole Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Corporation
D) Limited Liability Company
Answer: B
Rationale: A partnership is a business arrangement where two or more individuals share
ownership, expenses, profits, liabilities, and assets. In a general partnership, all partners are
jointly responsible for the practice's debts and obligations .
Question 2:
Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act?
A) FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
B) CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
C) DEA (Drug Enforcement Agency)
D) OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
Answer: C
Rationale: The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is responsible for enforcing the Controlled
Substances Act, including the registration of practitioners who prescribe controlled substances.
The DEA regulates the prescribing, dispensing, and storage of controlled medications .
Question 3:
You are the only CMA on the night shift. You receive orders for all the following tests within
minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority?
A) Routine CBC
B) STAT electrolytes in the ER
C) Morning fasting glucose
D) Routine urinalysis
Answer: B
,Rationale: STAT orders (from the Latin "statim," meaning immediately) take the highest priority
because they are ordered for potentially life-threatening conditions requiring immediate
diagnostic information. STAT electrolytes in the emergency department should be collected first
.
Question 4:
A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge. This is
considered:
A) Negligence
B) Battery
C) Abandonment
D) Malpractice
Answer: C
Rationale: Abandonment occurs when a healthcare provider discontinues care of a patient
without providing reasonable notice or an opportunity for the patient to secure another qualified
provider. This is a legal violation and form of medical negligence .
Question 5:
Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present
is a violation of:
A) OSHA standards
B) CLIA regulations
C) Patient confidentiality (HIPAA)
D) The Controlled Substances Act
Answer: C
Rationale: Discussing patient information in a public area where others can overhear violates
HIPAA Privacy Rule requirements. Protected Health Information (PHI) must only be shared with
authorized individuals in private, secure settings .
Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT true regarding HIPAA laws?
, A) They protect patient privacy
B) Patients have the right to access their medical records
C) Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records
D) Covered entities must provide notice of privacy practices
Answer: C
Rationale: This statement is false. HIPAA actually establishes strict boundaries on the use and
release of health records. The Privacy Rule sets specific limits on when and how PHI can be
shared without patient authorization .
Question 7:
Defamation through spoken statements is known as:
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Malpractice
D) Negligence
Answer: B
Rationale: Defamation is the act of making false statements that damage a person's reputation.
Slander refers to spoken defamation, while libel refers to written defamation .
Question 8:
The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to:
A) Demand specific treatments
B) Access their medical records
C) Require their provider to continue care indefinitely
D) Waive all co-payments
Answer: B
Rationale: Under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, patients have the right to access, inspect, and obtain a
copy of their medical records. They also have the right to request amendments to their records
and receive an accounting of disclosures .
CERTIFIED MEDICAL ASSISTANT (CMA)
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 250 QUESTIONS WITH
100% CORRECT ANSWERS EXPERT VERIFIED |
LATEST VERSION | COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Certification: Certified Medical Assistant (CMA)
Governing Body: American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)
Exam Format: 200 multiple-choice questions, 4 segments of 40 minutes each, total 3 hours 15
minutes
Content Areas: General (Psychology, Communication, Professionalism, Medical Law/Ethics,
Risk Management, Medical Terminology), Administrative (Reception, Patient Navigation,
Business Practices, Medical Records, Scheduling, Finances), Clinical (Anatomy & Physiology,
Infection Control, Patient Intake, Assisting the Provider, Nutrition, Specimen Processing,
Diagnostics, Pharmacology, Emergency Management)
HOW TO USE THIS STUDY GUIDE
Exam Overview:
- Number of Questions: 200 on official exam (250 practice questions included here for
comprehensive review)
- Time Limit: 3 hours 15 minutes
- Passing Score: Determined by the Certifying Board using a criterion-referenced standard
- Recertification: Every 60 months via continuing education or re-examination
Eligibility Requirements:
- Graduation candidate or graduate of an accredited medical assisting program
- Take exam up to 30 days before completing coursework; must take within 12 months of
graduation as recent graduate
SECTION A: MEDICAL PRACTICE & LAW (Questions 1-30)
Question 1:
,Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patient expenses,
profits, and assets. Which type of medical practice is this?
A) Sole Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Corporation
D) Limited Liability Company
Answer: B
Rationale: A partnership is a business arrangement where two or more individuals share
ownership, expenses, profits, liabilities, and assets. In a general partnership, all partners are
jointly responsible for the practice's debts and obligations .
Question 2:
Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act?
A) FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
B) CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
C) DEA (Drug Enforcement Agency)
D) OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
Answer: C
Rationale: The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) is responsible for enforcing the Controlled
Substances Act, including the registration of practitioners who prescribe controlled substances.
The DEA regulates the prescribing, dispensing, and storage of controlled medications .
Question 3:
You are the only CMA on the night shift. You receive orders for all the following tests within
minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority?
A) Routine CBC
B) STAT electrolytes in the ER
C) Morning fasting glucose
D) Routine urinalysis
Answer: B
,Rationale: STAT orders (from the Latin "statim," meaning immediately) take the highest priority
because they are ordered for potentially life-threatening conditions requiring immediate
diagnostic information. STAT electrolytes in the emergency department should be collected first
.
Question 4:
A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge. This is
considered:
A) Negligence
B) Battery
C) Abandonment
D) Malpractice
Answer: C
Rationale: Abandonment occurs when a healthcare provider discontinues care of a patient
without providing reasonable notice or an opportunity for the patient to secure another qualified
provider. This is a legal violation and form of medical negligence .
Question 5:
Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present
is a violation of:
A) OSHA standards
B) CLIA regulations
C) Patient confidentiality (HIPAA)
D) The Controlled Substances Act
Answer: C
Rationale: Discussing patient information in a public area where others can overhear violates
HIPAA Privacy Rule requirements. Protected Health Information (PHI) must only be shared with
authorized individuals in private, secure settings .
Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT true regarding HIPAA laws?
, A) They protect patient privacy
B) Patients have the right to access their medical records
C) Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records
D) Covered entities must provide notice of privacy practices
Answer: C
Rationale: This statement is false. HIPAA actually establishes strict boundaries on the use and
release of health records. The Privacy Rule sets specific limits on when and how PHI can be
shared without patient authorization .
Question 7:
Defamation through spoken statements is known as:
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Malpractice
D) Negligence
Answer: B
Rationale: Defamation is the act of making false statements that damage a person's reputation.
Slander refers to spoken defamation, while libel refers to written defamation .
Question 8:
The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to:
A) Demand specific treatments
B) Access their medical records
C) Require their provider to continue care indefinitely
D) Waive all co-payments
Answer: B
Rationale: Under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, patients have the right to access, inspect, and obtain a
copy of their medical records. They also have the right to request amendments to their records
and receive an accounting of disclosures .
