NUR231 Final Exam V3 | NUR 231 Childbearing
& Child Caring Family Exam Q&A | Galen
College of Nursing
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This comprehensive final exam preparation material is designed to strengthen understanding of
advanced maternal-child nursing concepts, family healthcare management, and complex
pediatric and newborn interventions. The content focuses on integrating maternal-child
nursing knowledge into real-world healthcare scenarios and clinical decision-making.
The questions are structured to closely mirror actual nursing final exams while reinforcing
analytical reasoning, prioritization, and maternal-child intervention strategies. Detailed expert
explanations are included to support concept mastery and academic success.
════════════════════════════════════
The Exam Covers:
• Comprehensive maternal assessment
• Labor and newborn emergency care
• Pediatric growth and safety concepts
• Family-centered healthcare planning
• Pediatric chronic illness nursing
• Community maternal-child resources
• Interdisciplinary nursing collaboration
• Final comprehensive maternal-child review
════════════════════════════════════
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks gestation who presents with a headache and
blurred vision. Which finding should the nurse prioritize?
A. Blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg
B. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
,C. Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
D. 1+ protein in the urine
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The client’s symptoms of headache and blurred vision suggest severe
preeclampsia. A blood pressure reading of 162/112 mmHg indicates a hypertensive crisis
that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal seizure or stroke. While edema
and protein are common in preeclampsia, the blood pressure level is the most critical
physiological threat in this scenario.
2. Which assessment finding at 1 minute after birth should a nurse assign an APGAR score of
1 point for respiratory effort?
A. Loud, vigorous crying
B. Complete absence of respirations
C. Symmetrical chest expansion
D. Slow, weak, or irregular gasping
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: An APGAR score of 1 for respiratory effort is given when the newborn
exhibits slow, irregular, or weak gasping movements. A score of 0 is given for apnea or no
breathing, while a score of 2 is given for a vigorous cry. This assessment helps determine
the need for immediate neonatal resuscitation and oxygen support.
,3. A nurse is monitoring a client in labor and notes late decelerations on the fetal heart rate
monitor. What is the nurse’s immediate priority action?
A. Perform a vaginal examination to check for cord prolapse
B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 8-10 L/min
C. Increase the rate of the intravenous oxytocin infusion
D. Request the client to bear down and push with the next contraction
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency and
require immediate intervention to maximize oxygen delivery to the fetus. The nurse should
first turn the client to a side-lying position and apply oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Oxytocin should be discontinued immediately, not increased, to reduce uterine activity and
improve placental blood flow.
4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client 4 hours after delivery. Which finding requires
immediate notification of the provider?
A. Saturation of a perineal pad in 15 minutes
B. Uterine fundus that is firm and at the umbilicus
C. Voiding 300 mL of clear yellow urine
D. Temperature of 100.2 degrees Fahrenheit (37.9 C)
Correct Answer: A
, Expert Explanation: Saturating a perineal pad in 15 minutes or less is a sign of excessive
bleeding and potential postpartum hemorrhage. This situation necessitates immediate
clinical assessment of fundal tone and notification of the physician. A temperature slightly
above 100 F is common due to dehydration after labor, but heavy bleeding is an
emergency.
5. According to Erikson’s stages of development, which task should the nurse expect a 2-year-
old child to be working on?
A. Developing a sense of industry
B. Establishing a sense of trust
C. Gaining a sense of initiative
D. Achieving a sense of autonomy
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Toddlers between ages 1 and 3 are in the stage of Autonomy
vs. Shame and Doubt. They focus on developing self-control and independence through
tasks like toilet training and choosing their own toys. Failure to successfully navigate this
stage can lead to feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt later in life.
6. A nurse is providing education to parents about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
prevention. Which instruction should be included?
A. Place the infant in the prone position for all sleep cycles
B. Use soft bedding and pillows to cushion the infant’s head
& Child Caring Family Exam Q&A | Galen
College of Nursing
────────────────────────────────────
This comprehensive final exam preparation material is designed to strengthen understanding of
advanced maternal-child nursing concepts, family healthcare management, and complex
pediatric and newborn interventions. The content focuses on integrating maternal-child
nursing knowledge into real-world healthcare scenarios and clinical decision-making.
The questions are structured to closely mirror actual nursing final exams while reinforcing
analytical reasoning, prioritization, and maternal-child intervention strategies. Detailed expert
explanations are included to support concept mastery and academic success.
════════════════════════════════════
The Exam Covers:
• Comprehensive maternal assessment
• Labor and newborn emergency care
• Pediatric growth and safety concepts
• Family-centered healthcare planning
• Pediatric chronic illness nursing
• Community maternal-child resources
• Interdisciplinary nursing collaboration
• Final comprehensive maternal-child review
════════════════════════════════════
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks gestation who presents with a headache and
blurred vision. Which finding should the nurse prioritize?
A. Blood pressure of 162/112 mmHg
B. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
,C. Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
D. 1+ protein in the urine
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The client’s symptoms of headache and blurred vision suggest severe
preeclampsia. A blood pressure reading of 162/112 mmHg indicates a hypertensive crisis
that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal seizure or stroke. While edema
and protein are common in preeclampsia, the blood pressure level is the most critical
physiological threat in this scenario.
2. Which assessment finding at 1 minute after birth should a nurse assign an APGAR score of
1 point for respiratory effort?
A. Loud, vigorous crying
B. Complete absence of respirations
C. Symmetrical chest expansion
D. Slow, weak, or irregular gasping
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: An APGAR score of 1 for respiratory effort is given when the newborn
exhibits slow, irregular, or weak gasping movements. A score of 0 is given for apnea or no
breathing, while a score of 2 is given for a vigorous cry. This assessment helps determine
the need for immediate neonatal resuscitation and oxygen support.
,3. A nurse is monitoring a client in labor and notes late decelerations on the fetal heart rate
monitor. What is the nurse’s immediate priority action?
A. Perform a vaginal examination to check for cord prolapse
B. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 8-10 L/min
C. Increase the rate of the intravenous oxytocin infusion
D. Request the client to bear down and push with the next contraction
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency and
require immediate intervention to maximize oxygen delivery to the fetus. The nurse should
first turn the client to a side-lying position and apply oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Oxytocin should be discontinued immediately, not increased, to reduce uterine activity and
improve placental blood flow.
4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client 4 hours after delivery. Which finding requires
immediate notification of the provider?
A. Saturation of a perineal pad in 15 minutes
B. Uterine fundus that is firm and at the umbilicus
C. Voiding 300 mL of clear yellow urine
D. Temperature of 100.2 degrees Fahrenheit (37.9 C)
Correct Answer: A
, Expert Explanation: Saturating a perineal pad in 15 minutes or less is a sign of excessive
bleeding and potential postpartum hemorrhage. This situation necessitates immediate
clinical assessment of fundal tone and notification of the physician. A temperature slightly
above 100 F is common due to dehydration after labor, but heavy bleeding is an
emergency.
5. According to Erikson’s stages of development, which task should the nurse expect a 2-year-
old child to be working on?
A. Developing a sense of industry
B. Establishing a sense of trust
C. Gaining a sense of initiative
D. Achieving a sense of autonomy
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Toddlers between ages 1 and 3 are in the stage of Autonomy
vs. Shame and Doubt. They focus on developing self-control and independence through
tasks like toilet training and choosing their own toys. Failure to successfully navigate this
stage can lead to feelings of inadequacy and self-doubt later in life.
6. A nurse is providing education to parents about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
prevention. Which instruction should be included?
A. Place the infant in the prone position for all sleep cycles
B. Use soft bedding and pillows to cushion the infant’s head
