Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
EVOLVE HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 125 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!!
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy
for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria."
The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the
nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide - Correct Answer-D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide.
Administration of options A, B, and C does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection.
Which response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug
teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
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, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - Correct Answer-A. "I'll
wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to
wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
accurate statements about side effects of this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status
epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with
phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to
administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - Correct Answer-B. Diazepam
Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus. Options A, C,
and D are used for the long-term management of seizure disorders but are not as
useful in the emergency management of status epilepticus.
A client who has trouble swallowing pills intermittently has been prescribed
venlafaxine (XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What
should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
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, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding or applesauce.
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance absorption.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of water or juice.
D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication. - Correct
Answer-D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are extended-
release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain delayed-release, enteric-coated
granules to prevent decomposition of the drug in the acidic pH of the stomach. The
client should notify the health care provider about the inability to swallow the
capsule. This medication should not be chewed or opened so that the delayed-
release, enteric-coated granules can remain intact. Water or juice will not affect
the medication.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which
action should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area. - Correct Answer-C. Avoid
abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the
mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because
absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the
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, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
skin. Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases the
risk of systemic absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface area
increases the amount of topical drug that is available for transdermal absorption,
so the smallest area should be covered, not option D.
A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine, 300 mg PO every 6 hours.
The nurse plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated
with the use of this medication?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypothermia
C. Seizures
D. Dysphagia - Correct Answer-A. Diarrhea
The most common side effects associated with quinidine therapy are
gastrointestinal complaints, such as diarrhea. Options B, C, and D are not usually
associated with quinidine therapy.
The health care provider prescribes the H2 antagonist famotidine, 20 mg PO in the
morning and at bedtime. Which statement regarding the action of H2 antagonists
offers the correct rationale for administering the medication at bedtime?
A. Gastric acid secreted at night is buffered, preventing pepsin formation.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
C. The drug relaxes stomach muscles at night to reduce acid.
4|Page
EVOLVE HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 125 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!!
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy
for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria."
The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the
nurse to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide - Correct Answer-D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide.
Administration of options A, B, and C does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection.
Which response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug
teaching conducted by the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
1|Page
, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - Correct Answer-A. "I'll
wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to
wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not
accurate statements about side effects of this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status
epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with
phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to
administer in the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - Correct Answer-B. Diazepam
Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus. Options A, C,
and D are used for the long-term management of seizure disorders but are not as
useful in the emergency management of status epilepticus.
A client who has trouble swallowing pills intermittently has been prescribed
venlafaxine (XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What
should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
2|Page
, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding or applesauce.
B. Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance absorption.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of water or juice.
D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication. - Correct
Answer-D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are extended-
release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain delayed-release, enteric-coated
granules to prevent decomposition of the drug in the acidic pH of the stomach. The
client should notify the health care provider about the inability to swallow the
capsule. This medication should not be chewed or opened so that the delayed-
release, enteric-coated granules can remain intact. Water or juice will not affect
the medication.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which
action should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area. - Correct Answer-C. Avoid
abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent
should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact skin. Application to the
mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of systemic absorption because
absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the
3|Page
, Evolve HESI Pharmacology Exam Prep
skin. Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases the
risk of systemic absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface area
increases the amount of topical drug that is available for transdermal absorption,
so the smallest area should be covered, not option D.
A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine, 300 mg PO every 6 hours.
The nurse plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated
with the use of this medication?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypothermia
C. Seizures
D. Dysphagia - Correct Answer-A. Diarrhea
The most common side effects associated with quinidine therapy are
gastrointestinal complaints, such as diarrhea. Options B, C, and D are not usually
associated with quinidine therapy.
The health care provider prescribes the H2 antagonist famotidine, 20 mg PO in the
morning and at bedtime. Which statement regarding the action of H2 antagonists
offers the correct rationale for administering the medication at bedtime?
A. Gastric acid secreted at night is buffered, preventing pepsin formation.
B. Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
C. The drug relaxes stomach muscles at night to reduce acid.
4|Page
