Follow-Up Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Cardiovascular
Management with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed
– A+ Graded
Cardiovascular History & Symptom Assessment (5 questions)
Q1: During the telehealth visit, Liam Fitzgerald denies chest pain, shortness of breath,
dizziness, and palpitations. He reports no headache, vision changes, or peripheral
edema. Which finding is MOST important for the nurse practitioner to document as the
priority negative symptom assessment in a patient with established hypertension?
A. Denies chest pain and shortness of breath
B. Denies headache and vision changes
C. Denies dizziness and palpitations
D. Denies peripheral edema and orthopnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because in a patient with cardiovascular risk factors and
hypertension, ruling out acute coronary syndrome and heart failure exacerbation is the
priority; chest pain and shortness of breath are red-flag symptoms that would require
immediate escalation of care, making their absence the most critical negative findings to
document.
,Q2: Liam's family history includes a myocardial infarction in his father at age 62. How
should this information be applied to Liam's current cardiovascular risk management?
A. It qualifies Liam for high-intensity statin therapy regardless of his LDL level
B. It contributes to his overall ASCVD risk calculation but does not independently
change his BP goal
C. It indicates Liam should be screened for secondary causes of hypertension
D. It requires immediate cardiology referral for stress testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a family history of premature ASCVD is a risk-enhancing
factor that informs overall 10-year ASCVD risk calculation; however, Liam's BP goal
remains <130/80 mmHg based on his hypertension diagnosis, and his statin intensity is
determined by calculated risk rather than family history alone.
Q3: Liam has a five-year history of hypertension and currently takes lisinopril 20 mg
daily, amlodipine 5 mg daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. Which
medication in his regimen is prescribed for primary prevention of atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease?
A. Lisinopril 20 mg daily
B. Amlodipine 5 mg daily
C. Aspirin 81 mg daily
D. Atorvastatin 20 mg daily
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Correct because atorvastatin is a moderate-intensity statin prescribed for
primary prevention of ASCVD events in patients with elevated 10-year risk; lisinopril and
amlodipine are for hypertension management, and aspirin 81 mg daily is also used for
primary prevention in select intermediate-risk patients, but the statin is the foundational
pharmacologic intervention for LDL reduction and risk reduction in this context.
Q4: When assessing Liam for symptoms of target organ damage from chronic
hypertension, which symptom cluster would be MOST concerning and warrant
immediate in-person evaluation?
A. Occasional mild headache relieved by acetaminophen
B. New-onset dyspnea on exertion and bilateral ankle edema
C. Intermittent knee pain after walking
D. Mild fatigue in the evenings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because new dyspnea on exertion and bilateral ankle edema are
potential signs of heart failure, a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension; these
symptoms require prompt in-person evaluation for further cardiac workup rather than
continued telehealth management.
Q5: Liam reports that he quit smoking eight years ago. How should this historical data
be interpreted in his current cardiovascular risk assessment?
A. It eliminates smoking as a risk factor after five years of cessation
B. It reduces his cardiovascular risk compared to current smoking but does not return
risk to that of a never-smoker