MCCQE1 GYNECOLOGY EXAM PREPARATION Actual
Exam Complete Questions and Answers Detailed
Rationales Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Normal Gynecology & Preventive Care | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Abnormal Uterine Bleeding & Menstrual Disorders | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pelvic Pain, Endometriosis & Fibroids | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Gynecologic Infections & STIs | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Gynecologic Malignancies & Menopause | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: NORMAL GYNECOLOGY & PREVENTIVE CARE Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 24-year-old nulligravid patient presents for her first well-woman examination. She
reports regular menses every 28 days, lasting 4 days with moderate flow. She is sexually
active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Her last menstrual
period was 2 weeks ago. Which screening test is most appropriate to offer at this visit?
A. Transvaginal ultrasound to assess ovarian reserve
B. Human papillomavirus DNA testing as primary screening
C. Cervical cytology (Pap test) ✓ CORRECT
D. Colposcopy due to high-risk sexual behavior
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical cytology is recommended for average-risk patients beginning at age
21 regardless of sexual activity. HPV primary screening is not indicated before age 30,
and colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure for abnormal cytology, not a screening tool.
Establishing routine cytology at the first well-woman visit is standard preventive care.
,Question 2 of 50
A 32-year-old patient with a history of three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries presents
for preconception counseling. She takes no medications, has no chronic diseases, and
her body mass index is 24 kg/m². She asks when she should start taking folic acid.
Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Begin 5 mg daily now because she has had multiple pregnancies
B. Begin 0.4 mg daily at least 2 to 3 months before conception ✓ CORRECT
C. Begin 1 mg daily only after a positive pregnancy test
D. Begin 4 mg daily because she is over age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All patients planning pregnancy should take 0.4 mg of folic acid daily starting
2 to 3 months before conception to reduce neural tube defect risk. The 5 mg dose is
reserved for high-risk patients such as those with previous neural tube defects or on
antiepileptic drugs. Starting after conception misses the critical neural tube closure
window.
Question 3 of 50
A 16-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea. She has breast development at
Tanner stage 4 but has never had a menstrual period. Physical examination reveals
normal female external genitalia, a patent vagina, and a palpable uterus on bimanual
examination. Which initial investigation is most appropriate?
A. Serum follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone levels ✓ CORRECT
B. Immediate pelvic magnetic resonance imaging
C. Karyotype analysis as the first-line test
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess müllerian anatomy
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: In a patient with secondary sexual characteristics but primary amenorrhea,
initial laboratory evaluation should include FSH and LH to distinguish between
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, and outflow tract
issues. Imaging and karyotyping are valuable but should be guided by hormonal results
rather than ordered indiscriminately.
Question 4 of 50
A 28-year-old patient requests a non-hormonal contraceptive method because she
experienced mood changes with a previous combined oral contraceptive pill. She has
regular cycles, no history of thromboembolism, and desires long-acting reversible
contraception. Which option best meets her preferences?
A. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
B. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injection
C. Copper intrauterine device ✓ CORRECT
D. Etonogestrel contraceptive implant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The copper intrauterine device provides highly effective long-acting reversible
contraception without any hormonal exposure, making it ideal for patients who prefer to
avoid hormones. All other options listed are progestin-based and would expose her to
systemic or local hormones. The copper IUD is immediately reversible upon removal.
Question 5 of 50
A 45-year-old patient presents for routine screening. Her last Pap test 3 years ago was
normal, and she has no history of HPV testing. She asks whether she needs cervical
cancer screening now. According to current guidelines, which recommendation is most
appropriate?
A. Discontinue all cervical screening because she is over age 45
Exam Complete Questions and Answers Detailed
Rationales Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Normal Gynecology & Preventive Care | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Abnormal Uterine Bleeding & Menstrual Disorders | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pelvic Pain, Endometriosis & Fibroids | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Gynecologic Infections & STIs | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Gynecologic Malignancies & Menopause | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: NORMAL GYNECOLOGY & PREVENTIVE CARE Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 24-year-old nulligravid patient presents for her first well-woman examination. She
reports regular menses every 28 days, lasting 4 days with moderate flow. She is sexually
active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Her last menstrual
period was 2 weeks ago. Which screening test is most appropriate to offer at this visit?
A. Transvaginal ultrasound to assess ovarian reserve
B. Human papillomavirus DNA testing as primary screening
C. Cervical cytology (Pap test) ✓ CORRECT
D. Colposcopy due to high-risk sexual behavior
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical cytology is recommended for average-risk patients beginning at age
21 regardless of sexual activity. HPV primary screening is not indicated before age 30,
and colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure for abnormal cytology, not a screening tool.
Establishing routine cytology at the first well-woman visit is standard preventive care.
,Question 2 of 50
A 32-year-old patient with a history of three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries presents
for preconception counseling. She takes no medications, has no chronic diseases, and
her body mass index is 24 kg/m². She asks when she should start taking folic acid.
Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Begin 5 mg daily now because she has had multiple pregnancies
B. Begin 0.4 mg daily at least 2 to 3 months before conception ✓ CORRECT
C. Begin 1 mg daily only after a positive pregnancy test
D. Begin 4 mg daily because she is over age 30
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: All patients planning pregnancy should take 0.4 mg of folic acid daily starting
2 to 3 months before conception to reduce neural tube defect risk. The 5 mg dose is
reserved for high-risk patients such as those with previous neural tube defects or on
antiepileptic drugs. Starting after conception misses the critical neural tube closure
window.
Question 3 of 50
A 16-year-old patient presents with primary amenorrhea. She has breast development at
Tanner stage 4 but has never had a menstrual period. Physical examination reveals
normal female external genitalia, a patent vagina, and a palpable uterus on bimanual
examination. Which initial investigation is most appropriate?
A. Serum follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone levels ✓ CORRECT
B. Immediate pelvic magnetic resonance imaging
C. Karyotype analysis as the first-line test
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy to assess müllerian anatomy
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: In a patient with secondary sexual characteristics but primary amenorrhea,
initial laboratory evaluation should include FSH and LH to distinguish between
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, and outflow tract
issues. Imaging and karyotyping are valuable but should be guided by hormonal results
rather than ordered indiscriminately.
Question 4 of 50
A 28-year-old patient requests a non-hormonal contraceptive method because she
experienced mood changes with a previous combined oral contraceptive pill. She has
regular cycles, no history of thromboembolism, and desires long-acting reversible
contraception. Which option best meets her preferences?
A. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
B. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate injection
C. Copper intrauterine device ✓ CORRECT
D. Etonogestrel contraceptive implant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The copper intrauterine device provides highly effective long-acting reversible
contraception without any hormonal exposure, making it ideal for patients who prefer to
avoid hormones. All other options listed are progestin-based and would expose her to
systemic or local hormones. The copper IUD is immediately reversible upon removal.
Question 5 of 50
A 45-year-old patient presents for routine screening. Her last Pap test 3 years ago was
normal, and she has no history of HPV testing. She asks whether she needs cervical
cancer screening now. According to current guidelines, which recommendation is most
appropriate?
A. Discontinue all cervical screening because she is over age 45
