Page 1 of 82
NUR-230 Exam 2 Questions Comprehensive 2026
Questions Exam Latest Version Solved Questions &
Answers Verified 100 %
Answer: 3, 4, 5
Explanation: 3. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the
second or third trimester and includes an evaluation to determine fetal
presentation.
4. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third
trimester and includes an evaluation of amniotic fluid volume.
5. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third
trimester and includes an evaluation of fetal number.
A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester
and includes an evaluation of which of the following?
Select all that apply.
1. Confirm fetal heart activity.
2. Evaluate the cervix.
3. Determine fetal presentation.
4. Amniotic fluid volume.
5. Fetal number.
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. Clients are placed in a supine position on the table.
When assisting with a transabdominal sampling, which of the following would the
nurse do?
1. Obtain preliminary urinary samples.
2. Have the woman empty her bladder before the test begins.
3. Assist the woman into a supine position on the examining table.
4. Instruct the woman to eat a fat-free meal 2 hours before the scheduled test time.
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. Three-dimensional ultrasound uses algorithms to vary opacity,
transparency, and depth to project an image. This allows curved structures
such as the fetal face to be viewed.
The nurse is preparing a client in her second trimester for a three-dimensional
ultrasound examination. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
1. "If the ultrasound is normal, it means my baby has no abnormalities."
2. "The nuchal translucency measurement will diagnose Down syndrome."
3. "I might be able to see who the baby looks like with the ultrasound."
4. "Measuring the length of my cervix will determine whether I will deliver early."
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. Lack of fetal activity for 30 minutes typically is insignificant.
, Page 2 of 82
Movement varies considerably, but most women feel fetal movement at least
10 times in 3 hours.
A woman at 28 weeks' gestation is asked to keep a fetal activity record and to bring
the results with her to her next clinic visit. One week later, she calls the clinic and
anxiously tells the nurse that she has not felt the baby move for more than 30
minutes. Which of the following would be the nurse's most appropriate initial
comment?
1. "You need to come to the clinic right away for further evaluation."
2. "Have you been smoking?"
3. "When did you eat last?"
4. "Your baby might be asleep."
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. A standard (comprehensive) second trimester sonogram
provides the information about the fetus, placenta, and uterine conditions
including fetal number.
Which of the following tests provides information about the fetal number?
1. Amniocentesis
2. Standard second-trimester sonogram
3. Beta hCG
4. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Answer: 4, 5
Explanation: 4. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a
symptom of placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the
placental location.
5. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a symptom of
placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the placental location.
The client at 24 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding after
intercourse. The physician has ordered a transvaginal ultrasound examination.
Which statements by the client indicate an understanding of why this exam has been
requested?
Select all that apply.
1. "This ultrasound will show the baby's gender."
2. "This ultrasound might cause the miscarriage of my baby."
3. "This ultrasound carries a risk of creating a uterine infection."
4. "This ultrasound can determine the location of my placenta."
5. "This ultrasound might detect whether the placenta is detaching prematurely."
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. A decrease in fetal cardiac output or an increase in resistance
of placental vessels will reduce umbilical artery blood flow. Doppler
velocimetry is best used when intrauterine growth restriction is diagnosed;
therefore, the baby is getting an adequate blood supply.
The prenatal clinic nurse is explaining test results to a client who has had an
assessment for fetal well-being. Which statement indicates that the client
understands the test result?
1. "The normal Doppler velocimetry wave result indicates my placenta is getting
enough blood to the baby."
2. "The reactive non-stress test means that my baby is not growing because of a lack
of oxygen."
3. "Because my contraction stress test was positive, we know that my baby will
tolerate labor well."
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4. "My biophysical profile score of 6 points to everything being normal and healthy for
my baby."
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. A previous history of twins is not a risk factor for ectopic
pregnancy. Beta hCG testing is not indicated for this client.
The nurse is returning phone calls from clients. Which client does the nurse
anticipate would not require a serum beta hCG?
1. A client with a risk of ectopic pregnancy
2. A client with spotting during pregnancy
3. A client with previous pelvic inflammatory disease
4. A client with a previous history of twins
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. The non-stress test (NST) has become a widely accepted
method of evaluating fetal status. This test involves using an external
electronic fetal monitor to obtain a tracing of the fetal heart rate (FHR) and
observation of acceleration of the FHR with fetal movement.
Which of the following tests has become a widely accepted method of evaluating
fetal status?
1. Contraction stress test (CST)
2. MSAFP test
3. Non-stress test (NST)
4. Nuchal translucency test
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. The purpose of the non-stress test is to determine the results
of movement on fetal heart rate. The NST is typically performed with the
woman in the semi-Fowler's position with a small pillow or blanket under the
right hip to displace the uterus to the left.
At 32 weeks' gestation, a woman is scheduled for a second non-stress test (following
one she had at 28 weeks' gestation). Which statement by the client would indicate an
adequate understanding of this procedure?
1. "I can't get up and walk around during the test."
2. "I'll have an IV started before the test."
3. "I can still smoke before the test."
4. "I need to have a full bladder for this test."
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. The FHR acceleration must be at least 15 beats per minute
above baseline for at least 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. A
nonreactive NST is one that lacks sufficient FHR accelerations over a 40-
minute period.
During a non-stress test, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate decelerates about
15 beats during a period of fetal movement. The decelerations occur twice during the
test, and last 20 seconds each. The nurse realizes these results will be interpreted
as which of the following?
1. A negative test
2. A reactive test
3. A nonreactive test
4. An equivocal test
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. Lack of fetal movement can be an indication of nonreassuring
fetal status or even fetal death. This client is the highest priority.
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The nurse is responding to phone calls. Whose call should the nurse return first?
1. A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports no fetal movement for 24 hours.
2. A client at 29 weeks' gestation reports increased fetal movement.
3. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 2 days.
4. A client at 35 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 4 hours.
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. A negative CST shows three contractions of good quality
lasting 40 or more seconds in 10 minutes without evidence of late
decelerations. This is the desired result.
A client at 37 weeks' gestation has a mildly elevated blood pressure. Her antenatal
testing demonstrates three contractions in 10 minutes, no decelerations, and
accelerations four times in 1 hour. What would this test be considered?
1. Positive non-stress test
2. Negative contraction stress test
3. Positive contraction stress test
4. Negative non-stress test
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. The preterm client with a history of preterm labor or cervical
insufficiency needs close monitoring for preterm labor onset.
The nurse is working in an outpatient clinic. Which client's indications most warrant
fetal monitoring in the third trimester?
1. Gravida 4, para 3, 39 weeks, with a history of one spontaneous abortion at 8
weeks
2. Gravida 1, para 0, 40 weeks, with a history of endometriosis and a prior
appendectomy
3. Gravida 3, para 2, with a history of gestational diabetes controlled by diet
4. Gravida 2, para 1, 36 weeks, with a history of history of preterm labor or cervical
insufficiency
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. Hyperstimulation is characterized by contractions that occur
more frequently than every 2 minutes or last longer than 90 seconds.
A pregnant woman is having a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test. Which result
indicates hyperstimulation?
1. The fetal heart rate decelerates when three contractions occur within a 10-minute
period.
2. The fetal heart rate accelerates when contractions last up to 60 seconds.
3. There are more than five fetal movements in a 10-minute period.
4. There are more than three uterine contractions in a 6-minute period.
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. The biophysical profile is used when there is a risk of placental
and/or fetal compromise. The gravida with mild hypotension will need to be
monitored more closely throughout the pregnancy, but is not a candidate at
present for a biophysical profile.
Of all the clients who have been scheduled to have a biophysical profile, the nurse
should check with the physician and clarify the order for which client?
1. A gravida with intrauterine growth restriction
2. A gravida with mild hypotension of pregnancy
3. A gravida who is postterm
4. A gravida who complains of decreased fetal movement for 2 days
NUR-230 Exam 2 Questions Comprehensive 2026
Questions Exam Latest Version Solved Questions &
Answers Verified 100 %
Answer: 3, 4, 5
Explanation: 3. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the
second or third trimester and includes an evaluation to determine fetal
presentation.
4. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third
trimester and includes an evaluation of amniotic fluid volume.
5. A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third
trimester and includes an evaluation of fetal number.
A standard ultrasound examination is performed during the second or third trimester
and includes an evaluation of which of the following?
Select all that apply.
1. Confirm fetal heart activity.
2. Evaluate the cervix.
3. Determine fetal presentation.
4. Amniotic fluid volume.
5. Fetal number.
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. Clients are placed in a supine position on the table.
When assisting with a transabdominal sampling, which of the following would the
nurse do?
1. Obtain preliminary urinary samples.
2. Have the woman empty her bladder before the test begins.
3. Assist the woman into a supine position on the examining table.
4. Instruct the woman to eat a fat-free meal 2 hours before the scheduled test time.
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. Three-dimensional ultrasound uses algorithms to vary opacity,
transparency, and depth to project an image. This allows curved structures
such as the fetal face to be viewed.
The nurse is preparing a client in her second trimester for a three-dimensional
ultrasound examination. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
1. "If the ultrasound is normal, it means my baby has no abnormalities."
2. "The nuchal translucency measurement will diagnose Down syndrome."
3. "I might be able to see who the baby looks like with the ultrasound."
4. "Measuring the length of my cervix will determine whether I will deliver early."
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. Lack of fetal activity for 30 minutes typically is insignificant.
, Page 2 of 82
Movement varies considerably, but most women feel fetal movement at least
10 times in 3 hours.
A woman at 28 weeks' gestation is asked to keep a fetal activity record and to bring
the results with her to her next clinic visit. One week later, she calls the clinic and
anxiously tells the nurse that she has not felt the baby move for more than 30
minutes. Which of the following would be the nurse's most appropriate initial
comment?
1. "You need to come to the clinic right away for further evaluation."
2. "Have you been smoking?"
3. "When did you eat last?"
4. "Your baby might be asleep."
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. A standard (comprehensive) second trimester sonogram
provides the information about the fetus, placenta, and uterine conditions
including fetal number.
Which of the following tests provides information about the fetal number?
1. Amniocentesis
2. Standard second-trimester sonogram
3. Beta hCG
4. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Answer: 4, 5
Explanation: 4. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a
symptom of placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the
placental location.
5. Painless bleeding in the second and third trimesters can be a symptom of
placenta previa. Transvaginal ultrasound will determine the placental location.
The client at 24 weeks' gestation is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding after
intercourse. The physician has ordered a transvaginal ultrasound examination.
Which statements by the client indicate an understanding of why this exam has been
requested?
Select all that apply.
1. "This ultrasound will show the baby's gender."
2. "This ultrasound might cause the miscarriage of my baby."
3. "This ultrasound carries a risk of creating a uterine infection."
4. "This ultrasound can determine the location of my placenta."
5. "This ultrasound might detect whether the placenta is detaching prematurely."
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. A decrease in fetal cardiac output or an increase in resistance
of placental vessels will reduce umbilical artery blood flow. Doppler
velocimetry is best used when intrauterine growth restriction is diagnosed;
therefore, the baby is getting an adequate blood supply.
The prenatal clinic nurse is explaining test results to a client who has had an
assessment for fetal well-being. Which statement indicates that the client
understands the test result?
1. "The normal Doppler velocimetry wave result indicates my placenta is getting
enough blood to the baby."
2. "The reactive non-stress test means that my baby is not growing because of a lack
of oxygen."
3. "Because my contraction stress test was positive, we know that my baby will
tolerate labor well."
, Page 3 of 82
4. "My biophysical profile score of 6 points to everything being normal and healthy for
my baby."
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. A previous history of twins is not a risk factor for ectopic
pregnancy. Beta hCG testing is not indicated for this client.
The nurse is returning phone calls from clients. Which client does the nurse
anticipate would not require a serum beta hCG?
1. A client with a risk of ectopic pregnancy
2. A client with spotting during pregnancy
3. A client with previous pelvic inflammatory disease
4. A client with a previous history of twins
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. The non-stress test (NST) has become a widely accepted
method of evaluating fetal status. This test involves using an external
electronic fetal monitor to obtain a tracing of the fetal heart rate (FHR) and
observation of acceleration of the FHR with fetal movement.
Which of the following tests has become a widely accepted method of evaluating
fetal status?
1. Contraction stress test (CST)
2. MSAFP test
3. Non-stress test (NST)
4. Nuchal translucency test
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. The purpose of the non-stress test is to determine the results
of movement on fetal heart rate. The NST is typically performed with the
woman in the semi-Fowler's position with a small pillow or blanket under the
right hip to displace the uterus to the left.
At 32 weeks' gestation, a woman is scheduled for a second non-stress test (following
one she had at 28 weeks' gestation). Which statement by the client would indicate an
adequate understanding of this procedure?
1. "I can't get up and walk around during the test."
2. "I'll have an IV started before the test."
3. "I can still smoke before the test."
4. "I need to have a full bladder for this test."
Answer: 3
Explanation: 3. The FHR acceleration must be at least 15 beats per minute
above baseline for at least 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. A
nonreactive NST is one that lacks sufficient FHR accelerations over a 40-
minute period.
During a non-stress test, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate decelerates about
15 beats during a period of fetal movement. The decelerations occur twice during the
test, and last 20 seconds each. The nurse realizes these results will be interpreted
as which of the following?
1. A negative test
2. A reactive test
3. A nonreactive test
4. An equivocal test
Answer: 1
Explanation: 1. Lack of fetal movement can be an indication of nonreassuring
fetal status or even fetal death. This client is the highest priority.
, Page 4 of 82
The nurse is responding to phone calls. Whose call should the nurse return first?
1. A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports no fetal movement for 24 hours.
2. A client at 29 weeks' gestation reports increased fetal movement.
3. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 2 days.
4. A client at 35 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement X 4 hours.
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. A negative CST shows three contractions of good quality
lasting 40 or more seconds in 10 minutes without evidence of late
decelerations. This is the desired result.
A client at 37 weeks' gestation has a mildly elevated blood pressure. Her antenatal
testing demonstrates three contractions in 10 minutes, no decelerations, and
accelerations four times in 1 hour. What would this test be considered?
1. Positive non-stress test
2. Negative contraction stress test
3. Positive contraction stress test
4. Negative non-stress test
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. The preterm client with a history of preterm labor or cervical
insufficiency needs close monitoring for preterm labor onset.
The nurse is working in an outpatient clinic. Which client's indications most warrant
fetal monitoring in the third trimester?
1. Gravida 4, para 3, 39 weeks, with a history of one spontaneous abortion at 8
weeks
2. Gravida 1, para 0, 40 weeks, with a history of endometriosis and a prior
appendectomy
3. Gravida 3, para 2, with a history of gestational diabetes controlled by diet
4. Gravida 2, para 1, 36 weeks, with a history of history of preterm labor or cervical
insufficiency
Answer: 4
Explanation: 4. Hyperstimulation is characterized by contractions that occur
more frequently than every 2 minutes or last longer than 90 seconds.
A pregnant woman is having a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test. Which result
indicates hyperstimulation?
1. The fetal heart rate decelerates when three contractions occur within a 10-minute
period.
2. The fetal heart rate accelerates when contractions last up to 60 seconds.
3. There are more than five fetal movements in a 10-minute period.
4. There are more than three uterine contractions in a 6-minute period.
Answer: 2
Explanation: 2. The biophysical profile is used when there is a risk of placental
and/or fetal compromise. The gravida with mild hypotension will need to be
monitored more closely throughout the pregnancy, but is not a candidate at
present for a biophysical profile.
Of all the clients who have been scheduled to have a biophysical profile, the nurse
should check with the physician and clarify the order for which client?
1. A gravida with intrauterine growth restriction
2. A gravida with mild hypotension of pregnancy
3. A gravida who is postterm
4. A gravida who complains of decreased fetal movement for 2 days
