NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen

NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen 1. What is the priority assessment for a nurse performing triage in the Emergency Department? a. A. Level of consciousness b. B. ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) c. C. Pain level d. D. Mechanism of injury 2. Which triage tag color is assigned to a patient who is an immediate threat to life (Class I)? a. A. Red b. B. Yellow c. C. Green d. D. Black 3. A patient who can wait a short time for care (Class II) is assigned which tag color? a. A. Red b. B. Yellow c. C. Green d. D. Black 4. In a mass casualty, the "walking wounded" are assigned which triage category? a. A. Class I b. B. Class II c. C. Class III (Green) d. D. Class IV 5. Which organization is a national network of local volunteers organized to improve community health and safety? a. A. DMAT b. B. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) c. C. FEMA d. D. Red Cross 6. What is a key characteristic of Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)? a. A. They only operate in their home state. b. B. They are unpaid volunteers. c. C. Their licenses are valid in all 50 states.d. D. They only respond to internal disasters. 7. What is the primary difference between heat exhaustion and heat stroke? a. A. Heat exhaustion has a higher temperature. b. B. Heat stroke involves body temperatures above 104°F and altered mental status. c. C. Heat exhaustion causes dry skin. d. D. Heat stroke is treated only with oral fluids. 8. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with heat stroke? a. A. Administer aspirin b. B. Check blood glucose c. C. Move the patient out of the sun and begin rapid cooling. d. D. Administer a high-protein snack 9. Why is shivering dangerous during the treatment of heat stroke? a. A. It increases core body temperature. b. B. It causes skin breakdown. c. C. It lowers blood pressure. d. D. It leads to fluid overload. 10. Which medication is administered to a patient with heat stroke if they begin to shiver? a. A. Ibuprofen b. B. Acetaminophen c. C. Benzodiazepines d. D. Epinephrine 11. In the treatment of frostbite, what is the recommended method for rewarming the skin? a. A. Rubbing the hands together vigorously b. B. A warm-water bath for 15 to 30 minutes c. C. Using a heating pad on high d. D. Exposure to a space heater 12. Which medication can be used in serious frostbite cases within 24 hours to restore blood flow? a. A. Heparin b. B. Warfarin c. C. TPA (Thrombolytic) d. D. Vitamin K 13. What does 2nd-degree frostbite look like? a. A. Numbness and waxy appearance only b. B. Redness and milky/clear fluid-filled blistersc. C. Black, hard tissue d. D. Small blisters with dark fluid 14. Why do patients with hypothermia need a heart monitor? a. A. To monitor for hypertension b. B. To watch for serious arrhythmias (V-fib/asystole) caused by cold-sensitive heart muscle. c. C. To check for myocardial infarction d. D. To monitor for tachycardia 15. What is "After-drop" in hypothermia treatment? a. A. A continued drop in core temperature after the victim is removed from the cold. b. B. A sudden rise in blood pressure. c. C. The stage where shivering stops. d. D. The recovery of skin color. 16. How should a patient with hypothermia be positioned to prevent CV instability? a. A. High-Fowler’s b. B. Supine c. C. Trendelenburg d. D. Side-lying 17. What is the hallmark symptom of Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning? a. A. Cyanosis b. B. Pale skin c. C. Cherry red skin color d. D. Jaundice 18. Which lab test confirms the diagnosis of CO poisoning? a. A. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) b. B. Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP) c. C. Carboxyhemoglobin (COHgb) level d. D. Lactic acid 19. What does the "A" stand for in the RACE fire management acronym? a. A. Act b. B. Alarm c. C. Aim d. D. Assist 20. When using a fire extinguisher, what does the "P" in PASS stand for? a. A. Pull the pinb. B. Push the lever c. C. Point the nozzle d. D. Press the trigger 21. What is the most common symptom of a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)? a. A. Fever b. B. Sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain c. C. Productive cough d. D. Bradycardia 22. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for a PE? a. A. Chest X-ray b. B. EKG c. C. CT pulmonary angiography (CT-PA) d. D. Ultrasound 23. A patient with a PE is receiving IV Heparin. What is the therapeutic lab to monitor? a. A. PT b. B. INR c. C. PTT (aPTT) d. D. Platelets 24. If a patient on Heparin has a PTT of 25 seconds (normal is 30-45), what is the nursing action? a. A. Increase the heparin rate (it is sub-therapeutic). b. B. Decrease the heparin rate. c. C. Stop the infusion. d. D. Administer Vitamin K. 25. What surgical device is used for patients with recurrent PEs who cannot take anticoagulants? a. A. Pacemaker b. B. Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) Filter c. C. Stent d. D. Chest tube 26. What is the defining feature of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)? a. A. Low CO2 b. B. Refractory hypoxemia (low oxygen even with 100% O2 administration) c. C. Hypertension d. D. Clear lung sounds27. What is the earliest sign of respiratory distress/ARDS? a. A. Cyanosis b. B. Increased respiratory rate (Tachypnea) c. C. Stupor d. D. Bradycardia 28. Which position improves perfusion in a patient with ARDS? a. A. Prone b. B. Supine c. C. Left lateral d. D. Lithotomy 29. What is the classic sign of a flail chest? a. A. Tracheal deviation b. B. Paradoxical chest movement (sucking inward on inspiration) c. C. Crepitus d. D. Bradycardia 30. What finding is expected when auscultating a patient with a pneumothorax? a. A. Crackles b. B. Wheezing c. C. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side d. D. Stridor 31. Where is a needle thoracostomy performed to relieve a tension pneumothorax? a. A. 5th intercostal space b. B. 2nd intercostal midclavicular space c. C. 1st intercostal space d. D. Over the sternum 32. A ventilator "High Pressure Alarm" is most likely caused by: a. A. A leak in the circuit b. B. Secretions/mucus plug or the patient biting the tube c. C. Disconnection of the tube d. D. Spontaneous breathing 33. What is the first nursing action when a ventilator alarm sounds and the cause cannot be determined? a. A. Turn off the alarm b. B. Call the doctor c. C. Manually ventilate the patient with a resuscitation (Ambu) bag.d. D. Change the ventilator settings 34. To prevent Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP), the Head of Bed (HOB) should be at: a. A. 10 degrees b. B. Flat c. C. At least 30 degrees d. D. 90 degrees 35. How often should oral care be performed for an intubated patient? a. A. Once a day b. B. Every 2 to 4 hours c. C. Every 12 hours d. D. Only when needed 36. Which condition is characterized by a "ground glass" appearance on a chest X-ray? a. A. Pneumothorax b. B. Rib fracture c. C. ARDS d. D. PE 37. A "Low Pressure Alarm" on a ventilator usually indicates: a. A. A disconnection or leak in the circuit. b. B. A tension pneumothorax. c. C. The patient is coughing. d. D. Pulmonary edema. 38. What is a "tension pneumothorax"? a. A. A small, stable air leak b. B. A life-threatening condition where air pressure shifts the heart and great vessels. c. C. Fluid in the pleural space d. D. A bacterial infection of the lungs 39. What should a nurse teach a patient with rib fractures to do every hour? a. A. Stay perfectly still b. B. Only breathe shallowly c. C. Use an incentive spirometer, cough, and deep breathe 10 times. d. D. Lift light weights 40. A paradoxical chest movement means: a. A. The chest draws in when breathing in and expands out when breathing out. b. B. Both sides of the chest move equally.c. C. The chest stops moving entirely. d. D. Rapid, shallow breathing. 41. What is the first sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. A. Cushing’s triad b. B. Deteriorating Level of Consciousness (restlessness/irritability) c. C. Dilated pupils d. D. Posturing 42. What are the components of Cushing’s Triad (a late sign of ICP)? a. A. Tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea b. B. Severe HTN (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations. c. C. Fever, stiff neck, headache d. D. Hypotension, bradycardia, skin mottling 43. Which medication is commonly used to reduce ICP? a. A. Heparin b. B. Mannitol c. C. Lorazepam d. D. Warfarin 44. An Ischemic stroke is caused by: a. A. A burst blood vessel b. B. A blocked artery (clot or debris) c. C. Head trauma d. D. Low blood sugar 45. What is the "gold standard" IV treatment for ischemic stroke if given within 3-4.5 hours? a. A. Heparin b. B. Alteplase (tPA) c. C. Aspirin d. D. Warfarin 46. What is the maximum dose for tPA? a. A. 50 mg b. B. 100 mg c. C. 90 mg d. D. 10 mg 47. A patient with a right-sided stroke will likely exhibit: a. A. Aphasia b. B. Impulsiveness and poor judgmentc. C. Dyslexia d. D. Intellectual impairment 48. A patient with a left-sided stroke will likely exhibit: a. A. Aphasia and problems with reading/vision b. B. Euphoria c. C. Confabulation d. D. Disorientation to person 49. What is homonymous hemianopsia? a. A. Total blindness b. B. Seeing only one side (right or left) of the visual world in each eye. c. C. Double vision d. D. Sensitivity to light 50. How should a nurse help a patient with homonymous hemianopsia? a. A. Approach from the blind side b. B. Place all items on the blind side c. C. Teach the patient to scan the environment by turning their head. d. D. Patch the good eye 51. What is the priority during a tonic-clonic seizure? a. A. Restrain the patient b. B. Place a tongue blade in the mouth c. C. Ensure safety, turn to the side, and protect the head. d. D. Administer oral fluids 52. What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus? a. A. IV Lorazepam (Ativan) b. B. Oral Phenytoin c. C. Acetaminophen d. D. Insulin 53. What is the therapeutic range for Phenytoin (Dilantin)? a. A. 5-10 mcg/ml b. B. 10-20 mcg/ml c. C. 20-30 mcg/ml d. D. 50-100 mcg/ml 54. What is a common side effect of long-term Phenytoin use? a. A. Hair loss b. B. Gingival (gum) hyperplasiac. C. Weight gain d. D. Tinnitus 55. The postictal phase of a seizure is characterized by: a. A. Intense muscle jerking b. B. An aura c. C. Drowsiness, fatigue, and confusion. d. D. High fever 56. Autonomic Dysreflexia occurs in patients with spinal cord injuries at or above: a. A. L1 b. B. C2 c. C. T6 d. D. T12 57. Symptoms of Autonomic Dysreflexia include: a. A. Sudden onset high blood pressure and bradycardia. b. B. Hypotension and tachycardia. c. C. Low blood sugar. d. D. Hyperthermia. 58. What are common triggers for Autonomic Dysreflexia? a. A. Low noise b. B. Bladder or bowel distention and tight clothing. c. C. Bright lights d. D. High-protein diet 59. Which sign of meningitis involves pain when the leg is extended while the hip is flexed? a. A. Kernig’s sign b. B. Brudzinski’s sign c. C. Babinski sign d. D. Trousseau’s sign 60. Which sign of meningitis involves involuntary hip flexion when the neck is flexed? a. A. Kernig’s sign b. B. Brudzinski’s sign c. C. Nuchal rigidity d. D. Romberg’s sign 61. Guillain-Barré Syndrome is characterized by: a. A. Descending paralysis (top-down) b. B. Ascending muscle weakness (bottom-up) and loss of reflexes.c. C. Permanent memory loss d. D. High blood sugar 62. What is a common history finding in patients with Guillain-Barré? a. A. Recent broken bone b. B. Recent viral infection (Flu, Epstein-Barr, Zika). c. C. History of diabetes d. D. Excessive caffeine intake 63. The "tensilon test" (Edrophonium) is used to diagnose: a. A. Parkinson’s b. B. Alzheimer’s c. C. Myasthenia Gravis d. D. Multiple Sclerosis 64. What are the primary symptoms of Parkinson’s disease? a. A. High fever and rash b. B. Tremors, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia. c. C. Muscle wasting and vision loss d. D. Seizures and vomiting 65. To help a Parkinson’s patient with "freezing" gait, the nurse should suggest: a. A. Using a wheelchair only b. B. Rocking back and forth to initiate movement. c. C. Looking at their feet while walking d. D. Running 66. What is "Decerebrate" posturing? a. A. Flexion toward the core b. B. Rigid extension of all four extremities with arched back (indicates brainstem damage). c. C. Limpness d. D. Moving to localized pain 67. What is "Decorticate" posturing? a. A. Arms flexed inward like "C"s toward the cord (indicates cervical/hemisphere damage). b. B. Arms extended outward like "e"s. c. C. Flaccid paralysis. d. D. Normal movement. 68. What should a patient avoid before an EEG?a. A. Food b. B. Water c. C. Caffeine d. D. Sleep 69. A patient with a halo device should never: a. A. Drink with a straw b. B. Drive a motor vehicle c. C. Wear wool d. D. Wash their skin 70. What is the first sign of spinal shock? a. A. High blood pressure b. B. Flaccid paralysis and loss of reflexes. c. C. Tachycardia d. D. Increased sweating 71. The Parkland Formula is used to calculate: a. A. Kidney function b. B. Fluid resuscitation volume for the first 24 hours after a burn. c. C. Caloric needs d. D. Blood pressure 72. What is the Parkland Formula? a. A. 4ml x %BSA x Weight (kg) b. B. 2ml x %BSA x Weight (kg) c. C. 4ml x Age x Weight (lb) d. D. 10ml x %BSA 73. How is the Parkland fluid volume distributed? a. A. All in the first 8 hours b. B. 1/2 in the first 8 hours, 1/2 in the next 16 hours. c. C. 1/4 every 6 hours d. D. All in the first 24 hours equally 74. Which lab value is initially HIGH in a burn patient due to cell destruction? a. A. Sodium b. B. Potassium c. C. Albumin d. D. Hemoglobin 75. What is "Rule of Nines" for the entire front torso?a. A. 9% b. B. 18% c. C. 4.5% d. D. 36% 76. Which burn degree is characterized by charred skin with milky-white areas and no sensation? a. A. Superficial b. B. Superficial partial-thickness c. C. Full-thickness (3rd degree) d. D. 1st degree 77. What is an escharotomy? a. A. A skin graft b. B. Incisions made in charred skin to improve circulation and relieve pressure. c. C. Amputation d. D. A type of bandage 78. Why is Cimetidine (Tagamet) given to burn patients? a. A. To stop pain b. B. To prevent stress ulcers (Curling’s ulcers). c. C. To treat infection d. D. To lower potassium 79. What is the first phase of burn care, focusing on ABCs and fluid resuscitation? a. A. Resuscitative Phase b. B. Acute Phase c. C. Rehabilitative Phase d. D. Chronic Phase 80. What is the #1 sign of hypovolemic shock? a. A. Bradycardia b. B. Tachycardia (increased HR) c. C. Hypertension d. D. Increased urine output 81. Which IV fluid is the best choice for hypovolemic shock? a. A. 0.9% Normal Saline (or Lactated Ringer’s) b. B. D5W c. C. 0.45% Saline d. D. 3% Saline82. In which stage of shock is the MAP decreased by 10-15 mmHg and UO begins to decrease? a. A. Initial Stage b. B. Nonprogressive (Compensatory) Stage c. C. Progressive Stage d. D. Refractory Stage 83. Which shock is the ONLY one characterized by bradycardia? a. A. Septic shock b. B. Cardiogenic shock c. C. Neurogenic shock d. D. Hypovolemic shock 84. What lab value is the primary indicator of sepsis and tissue hypoxia? a. A. Sodium b. B. Lactic Acid c. C. Glucose d. D. Creatinine 85. What is the priority intervention for septic shock? a. A. Give food b. B. Fluids and antibiotics (after cultures). c. C. Lower the HOB d. D. Administer insulin 86. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) occurs in which stage of shock? a. A. Initial b. B. Nonprogressive c. C. Progressive d. D. Refractory (Irreversible) 87. A patient with a lactic acid level of 5 mmol/L (Normal 2) is likely in: a. A. A healthy state b. B. Septic shock c. C. Early heat exhaustion d. D. A state of high anxiety 88. What is the purpose of an Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) filter? a. A. To pump blood b. B. To trap blood clots before they reach the lungs. c. C. To filter out bacteria d. D. To measure blood pressure89. Why should a nurse avoid giving diuretics in the resuscitative phase of a burn? a. A. It would worsen hypovolemia and shock. b. B. It causes high blood sugar. c. C. It causes hallucinations. d. D. It increases the risk of infection. 90. What is the "nonprogressive stage" of shock also known as? a. A. Irreversible b. B. Compensatory c. C. Initial d. D. Fatal 91. What is the primary reason to teach a patient to cough and deep breathe after surgery? a. A. To prevent pain b. B. To prevent pneumonia and atelectasis. c. C. To lower blood pressure d. D. To increase appetite 92. Which surgical position is used for colorectal surgeries and allows access to the anus? a. A. Supine b. B. Jackknife (or Sims) c. C. Fowler’s d. D. Lithotomy 93. What is the "Lithotomy" position typically used for? a. A. Brain surgery b. B. Gynecology, urology, or pelvic procedures. c. C. Spinal surgery d. D. Heart surgery 94. A patient in the lithotomy position may experience post-op discomfort in the: a. A. Knees b. B. Shoulders c. C. Head d. D. Fingers 95. Who is at the greatest risk for a latex allergy? a. A. People with Spina Bifida and healthcare workers. b. B. People with high blood pressure. c. C. People with diabetes. d. D. Children with asthma.96. Informed consent must be obtained by: a. A. The nurse b. B. The doctor/surgeon c. C. The family d. D. The hospital administrator 97. What is "serosanguineous" drainage? a. A. Clear yellow fluid b. B. Bright red blood c. C. Pink, watery exudate. d. D. Green/yellow thick fluid 98. A "Purulent" drainage from a wound indicates: a. A. Normal healing b. B. Infection c. C. A blood clot d. D. Excessive hydration 99. What is the normal range for Sodium? a. A. 100-110 b. B. 135-145 c. C. 150-160 d. D. 3.5-5.0 100. How do you calculate Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)? * A. (SBP + 2xDBP) / 3 * B. (SBP + DBP) / 2 * C. SBP - DBP * D. DBP + 1/3 Pulse Pressure