Hondros Nursing NUR 150 Exam 2 ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | Study Guide | 110 Verified
Q&A | A+ Graded | Pass Guaranteed
Q1: The LPN is caring for a patient with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which assessment finding
is most consistent with this laboratory value?
A. Bounding pulse and hypertension
B. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias [CORRECT]
C. Deep tendon hyperreflexia and tetany
D. Increased urine output and polydipsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. Potassium is essential for normal
neuromuscular and cardiac function. Low potassium causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac
dysrhythmias, including flattened T waves and the appearance of U waves on ECG. The normal
potassium range is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.
Q2: A postoperative patient has a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. The LPN should anticipate which
priority nursing intervention?
A. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day
B. Administering a hypotonic IV solution as ordered [CORRECT]
C. Encouraging the patient to drink plain water freely
D. Increasing dietary salt intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sodium level of 152 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia. The priority intervention involves
administration of a hypotonic IV solution, such as 0.45% normal saline, as prescribed to dilute serum
sodium and restore fluid balance. Hypernatremia results from water deficit or sodium excess, requiring
careful fluid replacement.
Q3: The LPN is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with metabolic acidosis. Which arterial blood
gas (ABG) result is consistent with this condition?
,A. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 32 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 48 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L
C. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L *CORRECT+
D. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 45 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a pH below 7.35 with a decreased bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
level, typically below 22 mEq/L, and a normal or compensatory PaCO₂. A pH of 7.30 with HCO₃⁻ of 18
mEq/L and normal PaCO₂ reflects uncompensated metabolic acidosis, consistent with conditions such as
diabetic ketoacidosis or renal failure.
Q4: A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, fever, and back pain 15 minutes after
starting the infusion. What is the LPN's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider
B. Stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the provider
[CORRECT]
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Obtain a blood culture and restart the transfusion slowly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain occurring during a blood transfusion are classic signs of an acute
hemolytic transfusion reaction, the most dangerous type of transfusion reaction. The LPN must stop the
transfusion immediately to prevent further hemolysis, maintain IV access with normal saline to keep the
vein open, and notify the provider promptly.
Q5: An LPN is caring for a patient on strict intake and output (I&O) measurement. The patient consumed
8 oz of juice, 4 oz of water, and one 6-oz cup of coffee for breakfast. What is the total oral intake in
milliliters?
A. 420 mL
B. 480 mL
C. 540 mL [CORRECT]
D. 600 mL
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: To calculate total oral intake, convert ounces to milliliters using the conversion factor 1 oz =
30 mL. The patient consumed 8 oz juice (240 mL) + 4 oz water (120 mL) + 6 oz coffee (180 mL) = 540 mL
total oral intake.
Q6: The LPN is preparing a patient for surgery. Which action is most important to prevent postoperative
atelectasis?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
B. Teaching and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises [CORRECT]
C. Restricting oral fluids for 8 hours preoperatively
D. Applying sequential compression devices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deep breathing and coughing exercises are the most effective nursing interventions to
prevent postoperative atelectasis. These exercises promote alveolar expansion, mobilize secretions, and
improve ventilation. Atelectasis results from shallow breathing and retained secretions following
anesthesia and immobility.
Q7: A patient has a wound with yellow, stringy drainage and a foul odor. The LPN documents this as
which type of exudate?
A. Sanguineous
B. Serous
C. Purulent [CORRECT]
D. Serosanguineous
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Purulent exudate is thick, opaque, yellow, green, or brown drainage that may have a foul
odor, indicating the presence of infection and white blood cells. This type of drainage requires wound
culture and appropriate antimicrobial intervention.
Q8: The LPN is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury. Which description best characterizes
this wound?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
B. Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed
[CORRECT]
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
, D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness loss of the dermis, presenting as a shallow
open ulcer with a red or pink wound bed without slough. It may also present as an intact or open serum-
filled blister. This stage does not involve deeper tissue layers.
Q9: A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN for pain. The available tablets
are 325 mg each. How many tablets should the LPN administer per dose?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets [CORRECT]
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets, divide the prescribed dose by the available dose per
tablet: 650 mg ÷ 325 mg/tablet = 2 tablets. The LPN should administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen 325
mg to achieve the prescribed 650 mg dose.
Q10: The LPN is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period. Which finding requires
immediate notification of the surgeon?
A. Pain rating of 6/10
B. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
C. Absent bowel sounds
D. Bright red blood draining from the surgical incision at 150 mL/hr [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bright red blood draining from a surgical incision at a rate of 150 mL/hr indicates active
hemorrhage, a life-threatening postoperative complication requiring immediate surgical intervention.
The LPN must notify the surgeon immediately while maintaining patient safety and preparing for
potential emergency management.
Q11: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an arterial blood gas showing pH
7.34, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L. The LPN recognizes this as which acid-base disturbance?
A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation [CORRECT]
EXAM 2026/2027 | Study Guide | 110 Verified
Q&A | A+ Graded | Pass Guaranteed
Q1: The LPN is caring for a patient with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which assessment finding
is most consistent with this laboratory value?
A. Bounding pulse and hypertension
B. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias [CORRECT]
C. Deep tendon hyperreflexia and tetany
D. Increased urine output and polydipsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. Potassium is essential for normal
neuromuscular and cardiac function. Low potassium causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac
dysrhythmias, including flattened T waves and the appearance of U waves on ECG. The normal
potassium range is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.
Q2: A postoperative patient has a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. The LPN should anticipate which
priority nursing intervention?
A. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day
B. Administering a hypotonic IV solution as ordered [CORRECT]
C. Encouraging the patient to drink plain water freely
D. Increasing dietary salt intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sodium level of 152 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia. The priority intervention involves
administration of a hypotonic IV solution, such as 0.45% normal saline, as prescribed to dilute serum
sodium and restore fluid balance. Hypernatremia results from water deficit or sodium excess, requiring
careful fluid replacement.
Q3: The LPN is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with metabolic acidosis. Which arterial blood
gas (ABG) result is consistent with this condition?
,A. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 32 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 48 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L
C. pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L *CORRECT+
D. pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 45 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a pH below 7.35 with a decreased bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
level, typically below 22 mEq/L, and a normal or compensatory PaCO₂. A pH of 7.30 with HCO₃⁻ of 18
mEq/L and normal PaCO₂ reflects uncompensated metabolic acidosis, consistent with conditions such as
diabetic ketoacidosis or renal failure.
Q4: A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, fever, and back pain 15 minutes after
starting the infusion. What is the LPN's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider
B. Stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the provider
[CORRECT]
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Obtain a blood culture and restart the transfusion slowly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chills, fever, and back pain occurring during a blood transfusion are classic signs of an acute
hemolytic transfusion reaction, the most dangerous type of transfusion reaction. The LPN must stop the
transfusion immediately to prevent further hemolysis, maintain IV access with normal saline to keep the
vein open, and notify the provider promptly.
Q5: An LPN is caring for a patient on strict intake and output (I&O) measurement. The patient consumed
8 oz of juice, 4 oz of water, and one 6-oz cup of coffee for breakfast. What is the total oral intake in
milliliters?
A. 420 mL
B. 480 mL
C. 540 mL [CORRECT]
D. 600 mL
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: To calculate total oral intake, convert ounces to milliliters using the conversion factor 1 oz =
30 mL. The patient consumed 8 oz juice (240 mL) + 4 oz water (120 mL) + 6 oz coffee (180 mL) = 540 mL
total oral intake.
Q6: The LPN is preparing a patient for surgery. Which action is most important to prevent postoperative
atelectasis?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
B. Teaching and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises [CORRECT]
C. Restricting oral fluids for 8 hours preoperatively
D. Applying sequential compression devices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deep breathing and coughing exercises are the most effective nursing interventions to
prevent postoperative atelectasis. These exercises promote alveolar expansion, mobilize secretions, and
improve ventilation. Atelectasis results from shallow breathing and retained secretions following
anesthesia and immobility.
Q7: A patient has a wound with yellow, stringy drainage and a foul odor. The LPN documents this as
which type of exudate?
A. Sanguineous
B. Serous
C. Purulent [CORRECT]
D. Serosanguineous
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Purulent exudate is thick, opaque, yellow, green, or brown drainage that may have a foul
odor, indicating the presence of infection and white blood cells. This type of drainage requires wound
culture and appropriate antimicrobial intervention.
Q8: The LPN is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury. Which description best characterizes
this wound?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat
B. Partial-thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed
[CORRECT]
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
, D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness loss of the dermis, presenting as a shallow
open ulcer with a red or pink wound bed without slough. It may also present as an intact or open serum-
filled blister. This stage does not involve deeper tissue layers.
Q9: A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN for pain. The available tablets
are 325 mg each. How many tablets should the LPN administer per dose?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets [CORRECT]
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets, divide the prescribed dose by the available dose per
tablet: 650 mg ÷ 325 mg/tablet = 2 tablets. The LPN should administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen 325
mg to achieve the prescribed 650 mg dose.
Q10: The LPN is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period. Which finding requires
immediate notification of the surgeon?
A. Pain rating of 6/10
B. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
C. Absent bowel sounds
D. Bright red blood draining from the surgical incision at 150 mL/hr [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bright red blood draining from a surgical incision at a rate of 150 mL/hr indicates active
hemorrhage, a life-threatening postoperative complication requiring immediate surgical intervention.
The LPN must notify the surgeon immediately while maintaining patient safety and preparing for
potential emergency management.
Q11: A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an arterial blood gas showing pH
7.34, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ 30 mEq/L. The LPN recognizes this as which acid-base disturbance?
A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation [CORRECT]
